I've been reading Barut's "Electrodynamics and Classical Theory of Fields and Particles" and he derives de inverse Schwarz inequality for two time-like vectors [itex]<z_1,z_2>^2\ge z_1^2z_2^2[/itex] in the folowing way : " To show this we can assume without loss of generatlity z_2 to be (1,0,0,0). Then [itex](z_1^0)^2\ge(z_1^0)^2-(z_1^1)^2-(z_1^2)^2-(z_1^3)^2[/itex] which proves the statement".(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

My question is because I don't see how this particular case can prove the general statement

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# Vectors in Special Relativity

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