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My question is because I don't see how this particular case can prove the general statement

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- #1

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My question is because I don't see how this particular case can prove the general statement

- #2

Dale

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Both sides of the inequality are Lorentz invariant scalars. If the left side is strictly greater than the right side,

[itex]\left<z_1,z_2\right>^{2} > \left<z_1,z_1 \right>\left<z_2,z_2 \right>[/itex]

then under a Lorentz transformation the inequality still holds. That was supposed to be a <z1,z2>

If the left and right are equal, they remain equal under a Lorentz transform. This is the case of parallel vectors.

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Thank you DaleSpan, now I see the book's argument.

I don't unterstand Phrak when you say it didn't come out well, in this case we are talking about the "inverse" Shchwarz inequality it's supposed to be on the "wrong" side

I don't unterstand Phrak when you say it didn't come out well, in this case we are talking about the "inverse" Shchwarz inequality it's supposed to be on the "wrong" side

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- #5

Dale

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I think Phrak just meant that the LaTeX didn't display the way he wanted it to.I don't unterstand Phrak when you say it didn't come out well

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