Verifying Whether A Complex Function Is Differentiable

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves determining the differentiability of a complex function defined piecewise, specifically at the point z=0. The function is given as f(z) = { \overline{z}^2/z if z ≠ 0, 0 if z=0 }. Participants are exploring the continuity and the limit definition of the derivative in the context of complex analysis.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster considers showing the function's continuity at z=0 and evaluating the limit for the derivative. They express uncertainty about handling the multi-part nature of the function. Another participant attempts to apply the limit definition of the derivative and explores the implications of approaching z=0 along different paths.

Discussion Status

The discussion includes attempts to clarify the differentiability of the function at z=0, with one participant suggesting a potential solution based on their limit evaluation. There is also a minor correction regarding notation in mathematical expressions, indicating an ongoing refinement of understanding.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of piecewise functions and the nuances of limits in complex analysis. The original poster's uncertainty about the continuity of the function at z=0 remains a point of exploration.

Bashyboy
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The problem is to determine whether the function

##f(z) =
\left\{\begin{array}{l}
\frac{\overline{z}^2}{z}~~~if~~~z \ne 0 \\

0 ~~~if~~~z=0
\end{array}\right.##

is differentiable at the point ##z=0##. My two initial thoughts were to show that the function was not continuous at the point ##z=0##, which is may very well be (I don't know as of yet), or to show that the limit

##\frac{df}{dz} (z_0) = \lim\limits_{z \rightarrow z_0} \frac{f(z)-f(z_0)}{z-z_0}##

exists or does not. However, I am not sure of how to deal with the fact that ##f(z)## is a multi-part function.

Any suggestions?
 
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Ah, I think I may have figured it out. Let me type up my solution, so that it might be verified...
 
Using the definition of the derivative given in the 1st post,

##\lim\limits_{z \rightarrow 0 } \frac{f(z) - f(z_0)}{z-z_0}##

Because ##z## only closely approaches 0, but is never actually zero, we know that ##f(z)## is evaluated by the first part of the definition:

##\lim\limits_{z \rightarrow 0 } \frac{\frac{\overline{z}^2}{z} - 0}{z-0} \iff##

##\lim\limits_{z \rightarrow 0 } \frac{\overline{z}^2}{z^2} \iff##

##\lim\limits_{z \rightarrow 0 } \left(\frac{\overline{z}}{z}\right)^2##

If we let ##z = r e^{i \theta}##, then

##\lim\limits_{z \rightarrow 0 } \left( \frac{re^{i \theta}}{r e^{- i \theta}} \right)^2 \iff##

##\lim\limits_{z \rightarrow 0 } e^{4 i \theta} \iff##

This limit does not exist, because the it has a different value depending upon which line of angle ##\theta## you travel towards ##0##. Therefore, the derivative does not exist at ##z=0##.
 
Minor point: Don't use ##\iff## to connect expressions that have the same value. Use = for these situations. ##\iff## is used between statements (usually equation or inequalities) that are equivalent; i.e., that have the same truth values.
 

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