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## Main Question or Discussion Point

I´ve been trying to compute a volatility of invesment with currency hedging and I have a question. Let's take this example. We have our money in a fond copying the S&P500 index, which has 16% volatility, we also know that the current volatility of a dollar toward our currency is 5%. We want to know the volatility of the whole invesment.

Can I compute as following? If so, what is the reason for adding the two deviations instead of mulitplying them considering the volalitity of an index and a currency are mutualy independent.

$$\sigma=\sqrt{(16^2)+(5^2)}$$

Thank you.

Can I compute as following? If so, what is the reason for adding the two deviations instead of mulitplying them considering the volalitity of an index and a currency are mutualy independent.

$$\sigma=\sqrt{(16^2)+(5^2)}$$

Thank you.