Oldfart said:
Thanks for your replies! Though from your replies, I'm not sure that I asked my original question correctly.
As I was reading the thread, I also felt that your question had not been answered. I don't think there was anything wrong with how you asked it. There are three main classes of solutions that describe homogeneous and isotropic universes. In two of them (negative curvature and zero curvature), the universe is infinite at all times, and in the third (positive curvature), it's finite at all times.
To understand how "always infinite" is consistent with the big bang, just imagine an infinite line with distance markings on it. Imagine that the markings are f(t) light-seconds (or whatever unit you prefer) apart at time t, for some smooth strictly increasing function f defined for all t>0 (but
not for any t≤0). If you consider any two markings in the limit t→0, the distance between them (defined by the function f) goes to 0. The "big bang" is just a colorful name for the funny stuff that happens in the limit t→0.
Note that there's no t=0 in the theory, so the phrase "at the moment of the big bang" doesn't make sense (if we're talking about the original big bang theory). This doesn't just mean that we "don't know what happened before". This is the theory that tells us what time
is, and it doesn't even mention a t≤0, so we can't either. Right now, your intuition is telling you that there must have been a time t=0 and times t<0, but experiments have proved that theories that describe time in a way that's consistent with our intuition are a lot less consistent with reality than GR, so this is not a good time to trust anyone's intuition.