Wave function of a particle in a infinite well.

In summary, Tom mistakes the answer to the u-substitution problem because he takes it off of a calculator. He should have done the substitution in his head. He also finds the answer to the equation, 1 = L/&pi A2[1/2&pi], by using ordinary algebra.
  • #1
frankR
91
0
Originally posted by Tom
What you did wrong was take the answer off a calculator.

Do a u-substitution:

u=(π/L)x
du=(π/L)dx

then look up ∫sin2(u)du in an integral table. Don't forget to evaluate it at each limit.

You're not understading:

Let me give you all my work to alleaviate any confusion.

Show that A = (2/L)1/2

&psi(x) = A Sin(&pi x/L)

&psi2(x) = A2 Sin2(&pi x/L)

[inte]0L &psi2dx = 1

A2[inte]0L Sin2(&pi x/L) dx = 1

Actually...


I forgot to resubsitute...

BTW: I only use a calculator/computer to check my work.

Thanks...
 
Last edited:
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  • #2
Originally posted by frankR
1 = A2[1/2L - 1/4Sin[2L]]

First, you must have done something wrong because you should get:

1=A2(L/2)

(I know for a fact that A=(2/L)1/2).

How the heck do I find A?

Ordinary algebra. Once you do the integral correctly and get

A2(L/2)=1

just multiply by 2/L and take the square root.
 
  • #3
Yeah, that's what my fancy calculator told me, so what the heck did I do wrong?!
 
  • #4
Originally posted by frankR
Yeah, that's what my fancy calculator told me, so what the heck did I do wrong?!

What you did wrong was take the answer off a calculator.

Do a u-substitution:

u=(π/L)x
du=(π/L)dx

then look up ∫sin2(u)du in an integral table. Don't forget to evaluate it at each limit.
 
  • #5
See my original post: I'm [zz)]
 
  • #6
Originally posted by frankR
You're not understading:

Pardon, but I think I am. :)

Let me give you all my work to alleaviate any confusion.

Show that A = (2/L)1/2

&psi(x) = A Sin(&pi x/L)

&psi2(x) = A2 Sin2(&pi x/L)

[inte]0L &psi2dx = 1

A2[inte]0L Sin2(&pi x/L) dx = 1

Yes, I assumed all of that. The problem is that the answer you posted:

1 = A2[1/2L - 1/4Sin[2L]]

is not right, even prior to substitution. Like I said, try it with a u-substitution and an integral table.

edit: fixed quote bracket
 
  • #7
I worked out all of the kinks. I was wrong.

I found:

1 = L/&pi A2[1/2&pi]

The integral was more challenging than I thought.

Thanks for your help.

I would of never thought of the u substitution, I haven't done that sort of thing since Calculus II.
 

1. What is a wave function?

A wave function is a mathematical function that describes the behavior and properties of a physical system, such as a particle in an infinite well. It is used in quantum mechanics to determine the probability of a particle being found in a particular position or state.

2. How is a wave function affected by an infinite well?

In an infinite well, the boundaries of the system constrain the particle's motion, causing its wave function to become quantized. This means that the particle can only exist in certain discrete energy states within the well.

3. What is the significance of the wave function in quantum mechanics?

The wave function is a fundamental concept in quantum mechanics, as it represents the probabilistic nature of particles at the quantum level. It allows us to make predictions about the behavior of particles, such as their position and momentum, which cannot be precisely determined at any given moment.

4. Can the wave function of a particle in an infinite well be visualized?

No, the wave function is a mathematical concept and cannot be directly visualized. However, its square, known as the probability density, can be visualized as a graph, showing the likelihood of finding the particle at a certain position within the well.

5. How does the wave function change over time in an infinite well?

The wave function of a particle in an infinite well remains constant over time, unless it is acted upon by an external force. The particle's energy state and probability distribution within the well will remain the same, but its overall motion may change as it bounces off the boundaries of the well.

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