phoenixthoth
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this debate is futile.
What is the definition of a chat-bot?Originally posted by phoenixthoth
touche. ;P
but when will you guys ever learn.
i challenge all of you to PROVE, beyond all doubt, that i am not a chat-bot.
Lots of assertions in this post...no reasoning or logic. You have to back up any assertion you make. You refuse to do so. Here, let me spell it out for you as clearly as possible. You make assertions, I'll quote them back to you; to back them up you will have to answer my questions.Originally posted by protonman
I don't have too. All I said was that your method of investigation is not valid. If the method is not valid then the claims are not valid.
You have refuted nothing. You base your refutation on the scientific method which I have stated can not be used to establish valid knowledge. Therefore, the results of your experiments can not enter as refutations of my statements.
Originally posted by protonman
I don't have too. All I said was that your method of investigation is not valid. If the method is not valid then the claims are not valid.
You have refuted nothing. You base your refutation on the scientific method which I have stated can not be used to establish valid knowledge.
Therefore, the results of your experiments can not enter as refutations of my statements.
Another unfounded statement.Originally posted by protonman
According to the scientific method the senses are assumed to produce valid perceptions. Since you don't even understand the mind you can not talk about valid and invalid perceptions.
Originally posted by protonman
I don't have too (edit: don't have to show that logic is more valid than perception). All I said was that your method of investigation is not valid. If the method is not valid then the claims are not valid.
You have refuted nothing. You base your refutation on the scientific method which I have stated can not be used to establish valid knowledge.
Therefore, the results of your experiments can not enter as refutations of my statements.
protonman: According to the scientific method the senses are assumed to produce valid perceptions. Since you don't even understand the mind you can not talk about valid and invalid perceptions.
Zero: Another unfounded statement.
When are you going to get it through your head that we cannot even address your statements in a meaningful way if you refuse to demonstrate the reasoning behind your statements?
Originally posted by protonman
According to the scientific method the senses are assumed to produce valid perceptions.
I attacked your view. It is up to you to defend it. That is all. There is no need for me to support logic or reason.Originally posted by Tom
You can say it all you want, it doesn't make it true. And you keep ignoring my point, which is that the method you are using (which you call "logic", but which I am sure is nothing of the kind) requires justification.
Originally posted by protonman
I attacked your view. It is up to you to defend it. That is all. There is no need for me to support logic or reason.
Something to consider, since this is a philosophical thread:Originally posted by ahrkron
The scientific method just uses the fact that perceptions are consistent among different persons, and that they yield repeatable outcomes. This, in turn, is an observation, not an assumption.
Originally posted by protonman
I attacked your view. It is up to you to defend it. That is all. There is no need for me to support logic or reason.
If you want to know inference is a valid perception because there are types of inferences that perceive an object exactly as it exists.
Inference can understand the relation between different phenomena and through understanding this relation something about a subtle phenomena can be understood through its relation to a gross phenomena.
For example, based visual perception a vase appears that it is not changing instant to instant. But from the point of view of logic it must be changing instant to instant. Why is this? Because if there were a moment it was not changing it would be permanent. If something is permenent and suddenly becomes permanent then you have a cause that arrises on its own. This violates cause and effect and those who accept this view have the burden of explaining why if cause and effect are not valid why do flowers not suddenly grow in the sky.
You also bear the responsibility to explain and rationalize your attack. I can say "The moon is made of green cheese. You are wrong to say otherwise.", and I have made an assertion. If that assertion is to be taken seriously, I must logically defend my point of view. There have been people who have been on the moon, and have found no green cheese. The moon does not appear to be green to any observer. The measurements of tidal forces and orbital mechanics show that a green-cheese moon would not be dense enough to behave in the way it does. Without a logical counter-argument, my position is properly ignored.Originally posted by protonman
I attacked your view. It is up to you to defend it. That is all. There is no need for me to support logic or reason.
Originally posted by ahrkron
The point everybody is making here is that you are NOT using logic or reason.
The only use of a thread like this is for me to clarify my own thinking and discussion skills...and it seems to be working rather well, don't you think?Originally posted by phoenixthoth
i can appreciate those sentiments, zero.
Originally posted by protonman
I attacked your view. It is up to you to defend it.
If you want to know inference is a valid perception because there are types of inferences that perceive an object exactly as it exists.
For example, based visual perception a vase appears that it is not changing instant to instant. But from the point of view of logic it must be changing instant to instant. Why is this? Because if there were a moment it was not changing it would be permanent.
If something is permenent and suddenly becomes permanent then you have a cause that arrises on its own.
This violates cause and effect and those who accept this view have the burden of explaining why if cause and effect are not valid why do flowers not suddenly grow in the sky. [/B]
Originally posted by ahrkron
So far it has been quite a lousy attack.
ad hominem.
You would need to prove this. Not only that, but you would definitely need to quote in detail what you mean here by "perceive", "object" and "exists", since your assertion cannot hold for the common notion of perception.
why?
Unjustified assumption #1:
"if something does not change (even for a moment), it becomes permanent"
so what if it's unjustified? aren't all axioms unjustified?
I guess you meant "non-permanent" in the fist one. Didn't you?
If so...
Unjustified assumption #2:
"the character of 'being a cause' arises with 'permanency'"
Unjustified assumption #3:
"Dynamical evolution of a system cannot render it permanent"
It needs to be said also that no definition of "permanent" was given.
Unjustified assumption #4:
Violation of causality of the type "non-permanent transforms into permanent" allow for odd conclusions like the one provided for flowers in the sky.
[counterexample: self consistent systems can be developed in which causality is violated in restricted domains and which, nonetheless, display causal relations in many other realms; e.g., QM and its classical limit]
By definition that which is impermanent is changeing every instant.Originally posted by ahrkron
Unjustified assumption #1:
"if something does not change (even for a moment), it becomes permanent"
A permanent phenomena is an existent phenomena that does not change instantaneously.It needs to be said also that no definition of "permanent" was given.
If you accept that permanent phenomena can produce an effect you accept that a result can arise without a cause. IF this is so then you must explain why flowers do not arise in the sky suddenly or horns do not suddenly grow from my head. In other words, why is there a law of cause and effect.Unjustified assumption #4:
Violation of causality of the type "non-permanent transforms into permanent" allow for odd conclusions like the one provided for flowers in the sky.
No cauality can never be violated in the physical world, by definition. All these ideas about time travel and string theory are mistaken. By definition a cause must preceed its result.[counterexample: self consistent systems can be developed in which causality is violated in restricted domains and which, nonetheless, display causal relations in many other realms; e.g., QM and its classical limit] [/B]
Originally posted by protonman
By definition that which is impermanent is changeing every instant.
If you accept that permanent phenomena can produce an effect you accept that a result can arise without a cause.
IF this is so then you must explain why flowers do not arise in the sky suddenly or horns do not suddenly grow from my head. In other words, why is there a law of cause and effect.
No cauality can never be violated in the physical world, by definition.
All these ideas about time travel and string theory are mistaken.
Look, I told you that I don't accept QM or anything after it. Why do you keep bringing it up.
Originally posted by protonman
My arguments appeal to reality, the world and experience. This is the only thing we agree upon.
It is really frustrating talking to people who are so dense.
You don't understand what I am saying so instead of asking you just come up with some pathetic attempt to refute it.
Do you know how long I have been thinking over these concepts. For over 7 years I have been contemplating the meaning of impermanence and I still don't understand it that well. ...
In a world obeying cause and effect there can not be a third class like the one you describe.That being the case, and given your assertion that "if there were a moment it was not changing it would be permanent", you still need to prove that:
1. nature does not contain a third class of objects, that change some instants, while remain unchanged the rest of the time; and
2. The vase is one of those.
You are wrong again, my young friend. If you cannot trust your mind, then you cannot trust your mind to judge who is wiser than you and who is not. How can you trust what someone tells you, when you cannot even trust what your senses tell you?Originally posted by protonman
In a world obeying cause and effect there can not be a third class like the one you describe.
Your minds are limited, my mind is limited. All we can rely upon is the testimony of those who have a greater clarity in their minds. Just as we see cars and tress and know they are real some people can see electro-magnetic fields and more subtle phenomena and understand them as obviously as we understand everyday objects. Until we reach the point where we can see all phenomena as easily as we see an apple in our hand we are no different than a blind person with a walking stick navigating a vast forest.
I am not saying that you can not trust any minds. What I am saying is that there are certain phenomena which are evident to us such as cars, trees and people. These exist, no question. But there are more subtle levels of existence which are not directly accessable via the senses. Therefore we must rely on logic. For example, if we see smoke on a hill we can infer that there is fire. Although we can not see the fire we know it is there. This is a valid perception through inference.Originally posted by Zero
You are wrong again, my young friend. If you cannot trust your mind, then you cannot trust your mind to judge who is wiser than you and who is not. How can you trust what someone tells you, when you cannot even trust what your senses tell you?
Your "logic" negates itself rather neatly.
In other words, you are making things up as you go along. If you cannot trust the existence of what everone else agrees on, how can you assert the existence of things that have even less evidence to support their existence?Originally posted by protonman
I am not saying that you can not trust any minds. What I am saying is that there are certain phenomena which are evident to us such as cars, trees and people. These exist, no question. But there are more subtle levels of existence which are not directly accessable via the senses. Therefore we must rely on logic. For example, if we see smoke on a hill we can infer that there is fire. Although we can not see the fire we know it is there. This is a valid perception through inference.
I'm not making anything up as I go along. Everything I have said is self-consistent. Furthermore, I said I do accept things like trees and cars. I do accept what is conventionally agreed upon by all. How can you say I don't accept anything when I said I accept the existence of smoke?Originally posted by Zero
In other words, you are making things up as you go along. If you cannot trust the existence of what everone else agrees on, how can you assert the existence of things that have even less evidence to support their existence?
Again, by your own logic you cannot assert the existence of anything at all.
You amaze me as well as everyone here. How can no one criticize you for your statements. You say I don't accept anything. But in the post above I say I accept trees and such, no question. I go on to say that certain phenomena are not accesable via the sense and therefore we must rely on logic. The atom is a perfect example. It is beyond the range of the senses.Originally posted by Zero
In other words, you are making things up as you go along. If you cannot trust the existence of what everone else agrees on, how can you assert the existence of things that have even less evidence to support their existence?
Again, by your own logic you cannot assert the existence of anything at all.
Originally posted by protonman
I go on to say that certain phenomena are not accesable via the sense and therefore we must rely on logic. The atom is a perfect example. It is beyond the range of the senses.
Inference can understand the relation between different phenomena and through understanding this relation something about a subtle phenomena can be understood through its relation to a gross phenomena.
What is the difference between a point particle and a localized quantum field?
By the "logic" you have used to reject QM, you cannot logically accept the existence of anything at all. The funny part is that other people can see the logical conclusion of your statements, but you can't. It is a little sad, frankly, but the point is that based on your own statements, when you decide to accept the existence of trees, it is a subjective decision, and you are really "making up" your standard of acceptance as you go along.Originally posted by protonman
I'm not making anything up as I go along. Everything I have said is self-consistent. Furthermore, I said I do accept things like trees and cars. I do accept what is conventionally agreed upon by all. How can you say I don't accept anything when I said I accept the existence of smoke?
When I refute QM in reality I am establishing the everyday world. QM refutes cause and effect which is in direct contradition of the conventional world. If there is no law of cause and effect than every day objects such as trees and cars could not exist.Originally posted by Zero
By the "logic" you have used to reject QM, you cannot logically accept the existence of anything at all. The funny part is that other people can see the logical conclusion of your statements, but you can't. It is a little sad, frankly, but the point is that based on your own statements, when you decide to accept the existence of trees, it is a subjective decision, and you are really "making up" your standard of acceptance as you go along.
Further more by rejecting QM I am not rejecting the existence of electrons, atoms, etc. QM is a mechanics that attempts to describe the physical behavior of particles. It is not a theory of what exists. In reality all of physics is nothing more than a model. It is subject to the constraints of the mathematics used to describe it. For example, all the problems with infinities and sigularities arise are a result of the attempt to present a mathematical picture of reality. Math and physics can approximate the quantitative nature of reality but offer no conclusive statements on the untimate nature of the phenomena they seek to describe.Originally posted by Zero
By the "logic" you have used to reject QM, you cannot logically accept the existence of anything at all. The funny part is that other people can see the logical conclusion of your statements, but you can't. It is a little sad, frankly, but the point is that based on your own statements, when you decide to accept the existence of trees, it is a subjective decision, and you are really "making up" your standard of acceptance as you go along.
I think it is interesting that your "philosophy" is even incoherent to yourself. You have already rejected human perception as being flawed. Therefore you reject all existence at any level, because human perception of marcoscopic things is also flawed.Originally posted by protonman
When I refute QM in reality I am establishing the everyday world. QM refutes cause and effect which is in direct contradition of the conventional world. If there is no law of cause and effect than every day objects such as trees and cars could not exist.
The reason being is that these things arise in dependence on causes that are different from themselves. A seed planted in the ground produces a plant. There is a direct cause and effect relationship. It is impossible for a tree to produce it's own seed. If this were the case it would be pointless to talk about any kind of order in the world. But there obviously is as anyone can see.
The reality of everyday objects should never even come into question. A vase exists because we can use it to drink from. It performs a function that is in accordance with its definition. Your analysis is falling into the two extremes. One which states nothing exists and the other which states that things exist inherently or untimately; that is independent of anything else.
I said in that not all perception is valid. I did not say that all perception is invalid. Perception, as I explained it, refers to the senses not to all minds. In particular sight. The level of atoms and particles is beyond the scope of the senses. You need to understand this very important point. The rejection of perception only applies to a certain scale.Originally posted by Zero
I think it is interesting that your "philosophy" is even incoherent to yourself. You have already rejected human perception as being flawed. Therefore you reject all existence at any level, because human perception of marcoscopic things is also flawed.
You are the one who wants to use a double standard, not me.
That is the evidence. That is the reason. The questions you are asking are indicative of what I said. You are looking for some inherent reason to establish something. The logic goes like this. A vase exists because it functions in accordance with its definition. Your qualification for existence is some kind of meta-physical overly complex idea. The reality of the conventional world is simply that all people agree on something being a vase, give it a definition and accept it. There is nothing more.Also, the statement "A vase exists because we can use it to drink from." is again unfounded by any reasoning or logic. You cannot simply make statements without showing supporting evidence or logic.
What do you know about Buddhism that qualifies you to make this statement?Originally posted by Zero
You don't understand Physics, Buddhism, or Logic...is there anything you do understand, and does Physics Forums have an area for you to post that understanding in? Shall we create a Sports forum for you, maybe?
Prove it.You have chosen to pick and choose which perceptions are valid and which are not.
Have you studied Buddhist logic?You still continue to make unfounded statements and label them as "logic". You need to study logic some more, and come back and try again when you are done. I mean, in your last post you listed your unfounded assertion as both evidence and reason...the rules of both common sense and logic don't allow you to do that.
If you haven't studied Buddhism how can you say I know nothing about it?Originally posted by Zero
I'm not a Buddhist, I've made no claims to have studied Buddhism in any meaningful way. You have made that claim, and have consistantly refused to back up that claim, as well as every other claim you have made. Assertion after assertion after assertion, and not even a smidgen of supporting information of any kind.
If you haven't studied Buddhism you would not be able to distinguish between what I say and what is being quoted.Are you claiming that Buddhist "logic" allows you to make unfounded assertions and call them evidence? If so, can we see what Buddhist book, what Buddhist philosopher makes the same claims as you do, in the same way? You claim(occasionally, inconsistantly, and as you feel like it) that your thought are based on Buddhism. All we have is your word on that, though.
I am not sure what you idea of a proof would be. I can quote texts all day but if you have not studied them how can you accept them? This is not the mark of a scholar.I've debated Christians on this board, for instance, and while I don't agree with a single thing they say regarding the Bible and physics, at least they have quotations from the Bible or from Christian philosophers that at least back up the idea that their ideas are based on Christianity.
You have refused time and again to show that your thoughts and Buddhist philosophy are in line with each other. We are therefore forced to believe that you know as little about Buddhism as you do about physics, which is next-to-nothing.