Maybe what needs clarity is whether the force on charge-2 is produced by charge-1 (and somehow jumps the distance gap in order to present a proximal force on charge-2), or whether charge-1 produces a field that spans the gap and presents a proximal force to any charge within the field (where the field itself presents the proximal force to charge-2), or some other explanation.
And if the first, how does Newton's 3rd get back to charge-1, and if the second, is the field subject to Newton's 3rd (and does it pass the reciprocal force back to charge-1), and if some other explanation, how does it operate?
Since the field is generally spherical it does not seem on the one hand that the field would be "over built" in order present the full force for every direction in order to ensure that the full force is "available" to apply in only one direction because there are an infinite number of directions for which to fulfill, but on the other hand the field needs a means to maintain the potential to do so for any and all single or multiple charges.