What does the sum of residues being zero mean for this integral?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the integral \(\int_0^{+\infty}\frac{x^2}{1+x^6}dx\) using complex analysis, specifically through the method of residues. The original poster expresses confusion regarding the implications of the sum of residues equating to zero.

Discussion Character

  • Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the identification of poles and residues, with the original poster noting that the sum of the residues leads to a perplexing result of zero. Questions arise about the nature of the poles and the validity of the residue calculations.

Discussion Status

Some participants are exploring the implications of the zero sum of residues, while others suggest reconsidering the approach or the nature of the poles involved. There is acknowledgment of the original poster's struggle with the problem and a mix of responses regarding the use of complex analysis versus elementary methods.

Contextual Notes

The original poster mentions a requirement from their professor to solve the integral using the calculus of residues, which adds a layer of complexity to the discussion. There is also a reference to potential confusion stemming from the use of exponential terms in the residue calculations.

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Homework Statement


Calculate
[tex]\int_0^{+\infty}\frac{\x^2}{1+x^6}dx[/tex]

I found the poles/residues for this guy, and did the integral over the semicircular contour from -R to R, with R->infinity.

I get poles that contribute at:

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-4*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-12*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-20*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

Where I'm confused, it that when you sum the residues (I.e. 2*pi*i(Sum of Residues)), the sum of the residues is zero.

I also tried doing this integral over a smaller contour, from 0 to theta = 2pi/6 - and get similar weird answer.

My actual question is - What does this mean? I'm inclined to say that this integral equals zero - but looking at the function, that doesn't make sense to me.

Where have I gone off the rails?

I apologize - I'm still not very good with the Latex stuff.
 
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taylormade said:

Homework Statement


Calculate
[tex]\int_0^{+\infty}\frac{\x^2}{1+x^6}dx[/tex]

I found the poles/residues for this guy, and did the integral over the semicircular contour from -R to R, with R->infinity.

I get poles that contribute at:

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-4*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-12*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-20*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

Where I'm confused, it that when you sum the residues (I.e. 2*pi*i(Sum of Residues)), the sum of the residues is zero.

I also tried doing this integral over a smaller contour, from 0 to theta = 2pi/6 - and get similar weird answer.

My actual question is - What does this mean? I'm inclined to say that this integral equals zero - but looking at the function, that doesn't make sense to me.

Where have I gone off the rails?

I apologize - I'm still not very good with the Latex stuff.

You mean [tex]\int_0^{+\infty}\frac{x^2}{1+x^6}dx[/tex] (don't put a back slash in front of the x in the numerator because the x does not show up!)

I don't see why youhave exponentials in your answer, furst of all.

Clearly, the integral is not zero. How did you find the poles and residues? You have to be careful if the poles are not simple poles!
 
nrqed said:
You mean [tex]\int_0^{+\infty}\frac{x^2}{1+x^6}dx[/tex] (don't put a back slash in front of the x in the numerator because the x does not show up!)

I don't see why youhave exponentials in your answer, furst of all.

Clearly, the integral is not zero. How did you find the poles and residues? You have to be careful if the poles are not simple poles!

-sigh- yes - that is what I meant. Thanks!

OK - for x^6+1, there would be 6 poles, all at x^6 = -1, and they would be simple poles (right?). (well, z^6 = -1, after converting to the contour).

I took those poles to be z=e^pi*i/6, e^3*pi*i/6 and e^5*pi*i/6 as the only ones contained in the semi-circular contour.

I did the residue calculation - (z-zo*f(z)), then took the limit as z->those poles.

And I get those residues in my first post (I messed up and called them poles) :( .

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-4*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-12*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

[tex]\frac{1}{6}e^\frac{-20*pi*i}{6}[/tex].

The sum of those residues = 0, Hence my confusion.

I also tried a different approach and used a contour that only extends to 2*pi/6, and only contains the first pole, at z=e^pi*i/6.

When I work through that I get another result that points to the integral = 0, which just baffles me.
 
Last edited:
I'm wondering why you are bothering to use complex analysis when this is an elementary integral!

[tex]\int^{\infty}_0 \frac{x^2}{1+x^6} dx[/tex]

Let u=x^3, then du= 3x^2. Hence the integral becomes
[tex]\frac{1}{3}\int^{\infty}_0 \frac{1}{1+u^2} du = \frac{1}{3} \left( \arctan \infty - \arctan 0 \right) = \frac{\pi}{12}[/tex]
 
Gib Z said:
I'm wondering why you are bothering to use complex analysis when this is an elementary integral!

[tex]\int^{\infty}_0 \frac{x^2}{1+x^6} dx[/tex]

Let u=x^3, then du= 3x^2. Hence the integral becomes
[tex]\frac{1}{3}\int^{\infty}_0 \frac{1}{1+u^2} du = \frac{1}{3} \left( \arctan \infty - \arctan 0 \right) = \frac{\pi}{12}[/tex]

I know - because the Prof says: "Solve Using Calculus of Residues".

I think I figured it out. I'm just beat from working on these - easy stuff is giving me fits.
 

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