# What does time mean at t=1/infinity?

I have a question, please correct me in detail if I'm wrong with my conclusion. I am no expert in physics. I do however, have a certain understanding of Trigonometry and some integrals and some derivatives Calculus 1.

If you start at t=0 (the origin of the Universe) and if that is considered to be the present, does that mean that the present (at that time) requires a past and future equally by 1 divided by infinity and/or above? This problem has made me scratch my head for a while. My conclusion was that time had to start at either t=1/infinity or undefined.

Any form of math besides physics to "fix up" my understanding would be greatly appreciated.

Best,

Kyle Street

ZapperZ
Staff Emeritus
Your question makes very little sense. What equation are you using to arrive at such a division? What is it that this equation is trying to calculate or describe? There are numerous common descriptions that do not "blow up" at t=0.

Are you familiar with simple kinematics?

Zz.

Okay, to clear things up I meant that for every present time that exists, there is a past and a future. So if you start at t=0, will there also be a past for t=0 if all other times have a past and future? Lets consider t approaching infinity.

Oh I forgot to mention that t=0 is before the Planck Time and that the past and future are equally spread out as a v-shape

Oh I forgot to mention that t=0 is before the Planck Time and that the past and future are equally spread out as a v-shape

You're speaking nonsense.

phinds
Gold Member
2021 Award
I have to agree w/ JeffKoch ... it seems as though you are just stringing out words in a way that doesn't make sense.

It reminds me of lorentz transformation of time when time interval is 1 and spacial interval is zero which is the time dilation while travelling at speed of light.

Staff Emeritus
2021 Award
It's probably a good idea to let the OP explain what he means rather than to guess.

Simon Bridge