I have a question, please correct me in detail if I'm wrong with my conclusion. I am no expert in physics. I do however, have a certain understanding of Trigonometry and some integrals and some derivatives Calculus 1.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

If you start at t=0 (the origin of the Universe) and if that is considered to be the present, does that mean that the present (at that time) requires a past and future equally by 1 divided by infinity and/or above? This problem has made me scratch my head for a while. My conclusion was that time had to start at either t=1/infinity or undefined.

Any form of math besides physics to "fix up" my understanding would be greatly appreciated.

Best,

Kyle Street

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# What does time mean at t=1/infinity?

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