What Happens When a Magnetic Field is Applied to a Gas in a Vacuum?

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Applying a magnetic field to a gas in a vacuum, such as hydrogen or helium, results in varying responses based on the gas's properties, as most gases are diamagnetic, while ferromagnetic gases are rare. Alignment of gas atoms in a magnetic field is unlikely due to their unbound state and the dominance of repulsive collisions over magnetic forces, although alignment can occur at very low temperatures. The magnetic behavior of atoms is primarily influenced by the spin of unpaired electrons, which generates a magnetic moment. Both electron spin and orbital motion contribute to the overall magnetic moment, leading to the generation of a magnetic field. Understanding the specific magnetic fields associated with hydrogen atoms involves complex quantum mechanical calculations.
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What happens if we apply a magnetic field to a gas in vacuum, (like H or He)?,
do the atoms get aligned like in ferromagnetic material and produce in their turn a strong magnetic field?,
if they don't, why so?

Thanks
 
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It depends on which gas it is. Most of the gases are diamagnetic, some paramagnetic and ferromagnetic gases are very rare.
 
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Can you give me an example of ferromagnetic gas? and what about H?
Since in a gas atoms are not bound (as in iron) what determines its reaction to a magnetic field?
 
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UltrafastPED said:
Thanks for the interesting ling, Ultrafast, If I got it right alignment can occur at extremely low temperatures, because repulsive collisions between atoms are stronger than the magnetic force, and I suppose in laboratoty you cannot get a sufficiently strong magnetic field.

I hope you could explain a couple o obscure points
in your wiki article they say "The permanent moment generally is due to the spin of unpaired electrons in atomic or molecular electron orbitals (see Magnetic moment). "
- is the magnetism dependent only on the electron spin (which is very weak : \hbar?
doesn't the B field produced by the standing wave ,which is a lot stronger, play any tole at all?
- In QM, I learned, the electron wave id 3-D, how can the electron spin be stuck only in one direction
in such model?
Thanks
 
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Electron spin - the Pauli exclusion principle permits two electrons in the same "quantum state" = "orbital" if they have opposite spin.

The spin of an electron has an associated magnetic moment - thus the unpaired electrons are the most important source for magnetic fields at the atomic/molecular level.
 
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UltrafastPED said:
The spin of an electron has an associated magnetic moment - ...
Thanks, ultrafast, I am thinking of H to take the simplest case

I meant:
yes, the spin does have a magnetic moment, \mu(e)
- does it have also an associated magnetic field B(e)?, and,
- does the magnetic field generated by the orbit B(o) and its associated magnetic moment \mu(o) play any role in the magnetization ?
Thanks again
 
UltrafastPED said:
Magnetic moment implies the existence of a magnetic field.
Both spin and orbit contribute
We know that in QM the value of the spin momentum L(e) and the value of the orbital momentum L(o)(http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Orbital_motion_(quantum)#Orbital_Angular_Momentum) are the same as in classical model = \hbar, the value of \mue is \hbar*2.0023 (ge), right?

What is the value of B(e) and B(o) in neutral H atom according to QM model or current theory? how do we calculate it?
 
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