What is Meant by By Symmetry in the Reverse Triangle Inequality Proof?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around understanding the concept of "symmetry" in the context of the reverse triangle inequality proof within a metric space. The original poster seeks clarification on the phrase "by symmetry" as it appears in the proof.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the meaning of symmetry in metric spaces, particularly how it relates to the properties of distance. Questions arise about the specific application of symmetry in the proof and its implications for the inequality being discussed.

Discussion Status

Several participants are engaged in clarifying the term "by symmetry" and its relevance to the proof. There is an acknowledgment of the standard mathematical usage of the term, though some confusion remains about its application in this specific context. The discussion is ongoing with no explicit consensus reached.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of metric space properties and the implications of the triangle inequality. There is an indication that some participants may feel overwhelmed by the material, suggesting varying levels of understanding among contributors.

MaxManus
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Homework Statement


I'm reading the proof for the reverse triangle inequality, but I don't understand what is meant by "by symmetry"


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


(X,d) is a metric space
prove:
|d(x,y) - d(x,z)| <= d(z,y)

The triangle inequality
d(x,y) <= d(x,z) + d(z,y)
d(x,y) - d(x,z) <= d(z,y)

By symmetry
d(x,z) - d(x,y) <= d(y,z) = d(z,y)

So:
|d(x,y) - d(x,z)| <= d(z,y)

---------------------------------------------
How did they get the "by symmetry d(x,z) - d(x,y) <= d(y,z) = d(z,y)" part?
Isn't symmetry just that d(x,y) = d(y,x)
 
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I believe the symmetry reference is due to the fact that for a metric space d(x,y) = d(y,x).
 
Yes, but how does that take you to: "d(x,z) - d(x,y) <= d(y,z) = d(z,y)"?
 
Hi MaxManus! :smile:

By symmetry is a standard mathematical phrase and has nothing to do with symmetry here. It just means that the property is analogous to something you have done before.

MaxManus said:

Homework Statement


I'm reading the proof for the reverse triangle inequality, but I don't understand what is meant by "by symmetry"


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


(X,d) is a metric space
prove:
|d(x,y) - d(x,z)| <= d(z,y)

The triangle inequality
d(x,y) <= d(x,z) + d(z,y)
d(x,y) - d(x,z) <= d(z,y)

By symmetry
d(x,z) - d(x,y) <= d(y,z) = d(z,y)

Here, they mean d(x,z)<=d(x,y)+d(y,z), thus d(x,z)-d(x,y)<= d(y,z). This is quite the same thing as you done before...
 
Thanks!
angst18 I tried to solve your problem, but it was over my level.
 
Thanks, it seems I'm doomed :/
 

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