What is Rieman for a conformal metric?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Kurvature
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Metric
Click For Summary
The discussion centers on the conformal metric expressed in spherical coordinates and the quest to determine the Riemann, Ricci, and scalar curvature for this metric when specific conditions are applied. Participants debate the relationship between this conformal metric and the Friedmann-Robertson-Walker (FRW) metric, with one asserting that while they can appear similar, they are fundamentally different due to their definitions of time. There is a strong emphasis on the need for computational tools like Mathematica or Maxima to derive the Ricci tensor components, with some frustration over the lack of available resources or assistance. The conversation also touches on philosophical interpretations of metrics, contrasting the physical implications of the FRW metric with the subjective nature of the conformal metric. Ultimately, the goal remains to uncover the specific curvature components of the conformal metric.
  • #31
"PeterDonis, post: 5045845, member: 197831"]I should clarify that I have not checked that calculation; I have only skimmed through the thread you linked to.


[Peterr Donis]
Well, if we just look at coordinate time and the ##a(t)## factor, there is one obvious issue. ##a(t)##, from the metric, gives the ratio of proper time to coordinate time at a given instant ##t## of coordinate time, i.e., an interval ##dt## of coordinate time corresponds to an interval ##a(t) dt## of proper time (for an observer at rest in these coordinates).

[Kurvature]
Thank you for clearly explaining the relation of coordinate time to proper time.
I wasn't really clear on that.
So, it becomes clear that the observers in this case who remain at fixed (comoving)
spatial coordinates are NOT SEEING proper time. They are actually seeing
coordinate time. This is in contrast to FRW observers, who actually see proper time!
Believe it or not, this is entirely appropriate for my applied physics problem.
Turns out, that no real human being can actually see proper (wrist watch) time.
Oh sure, he "measures" things by proper wrist watch time, but that isn't the time that
he actually subjectively "sees". This is because all human beings fail to reach
full physical growth (specifically full brain growth in this case) and consequently
everyone's (mental clock) is running slightly slower than his wrist watch.

The world appears to EVERYONE to be both
bigger and faster than it actually is.


But this gets us into off-topic material so I will cease-and-desist here.
Suffice it to say, that the metric that I have proposed is entirely correct!

[Peter Donis]
But we do not know the functional form of ##a(t)##. For all we know, ##a(t)## could be constant (indeed, that case is what you were asking about in the OP in this thread). Without knowing the functional form of ##a(t)##, I don't see how we can know whether it describes "time dilation" or not.

Kurvature]
a(t) is not a constant. In fact a(t) is given by the following curve:
 
a(t)
oo
|x
|x
| x
| x
| x
| x
| x
| x
| x
|1.20 x x x
|_________________________________________________
0
time ---->

(Note that similar remarks apply to the spatial part of the metric; you are saying the metric describes "expansion", but without knowing the functional form of ##a(t)##, I don't see how we can know whether it does or not.)

[Kurvature]
According to the above curve, a(t) begin very large (at birth) and falls to
a constant value of 1.20 at age 18. This reflects the fact that the
Secular Trend human growth deficit is somewhere around 20%
in the world population.

[Peter Donis]
Also, you appear to be assuming that ##a(t)## increasing with ##t## corresponds to "time dilation". But if ##a(t)## is increasing with ##t##, then the amount of proper time elapsed in a given interval of coordinate time is increasing--i.e., that proper time clocks are "running faster" relative to coordinate time. "Time dilation" is usually used to describe a situation where proper time clocks are "running slower" relative to coordinate time.

[Kurvature]
The human brain is running "slower" then wristwatch proper time... about 20% slower
on average in the world population. More or less in individual cases. My clock is
running slower than yours for instance.

[Kurvature]
Are you saying that there really is a red-shift if the observer uses proper time?
[Peter Donis]
I have not done the calculation, so I can't say. But I think proper time is the appropriate standard to use, not coordinate time

[Kurvature]
Coordinate time turns out to be the appropriate standard to use
In the applied physics problem that I have to deal with.
I'd like to wrap up this discussion with this final post. I am
extremely grateful to you Peter for your explanations and
turning me on to Maxima which is a crucially important
tool for me. And of course, I remain awed and grateful
to Mentz114.
And at the final risk of offending unsuspecting physicists
on this vitally important physics forum, I simply would feel
derelict in my duty if I did not state plainly that these discussions
have confirmed that the (perceptual-psychological) phenomenon
known popularly as "God" has now been proven to exist and is
described by a conformal positively curved (k=1) metric whose
scalar curvature R is equal to 6/a(t)^2 and that a "Field equation
of God" may be written as :

God = scalar R = (% of full brain growth) = 6K/a(t)^2

where K is a proportionality constant.
And with that I thank you for your forebearance and
will hightail it out of here and bother you no further.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
  • #32
Kurvature said:
observers in this case who remain at fixed (comoving) spatial coordinates are NOT SEEING proper time.

No, this is not correct. Proper time is not a single standard of time; it is different for observers following different worldlines. Each observer always experiences proper time along his own worldline. The point I was making is that observers who are at fixed spatial coordinates in your metric do not experience coordinate time in those coordinates; that is, proper time along their worldlines, which is what they experience, is not the same as coordinate time. But coordinate time is just a convention anyway; I can transform your metric into different coordinates without changing any physics at all.

Kurvature said:
his is in contrast to FRW observers, who actually see proper time!

No. The difference in the standard FRW case is that proper time for observers at fixed spatial coordinates, which is what those observers experience, happens to be the same as coordinate time. That is because the standard FRW coordinates are carefully chosen for that purpose; in other words, standard FRW coordinates represent a convention that is carefully chosen to make the physical interpretation of the time coordinate simple. Coordinate time by itself can never be a "standard" in physical terms; in a case like the usual FRW coordinates, the actual physical standard is the proper time experienced by a particular family of observers. The fact that proper time for those observers is the same as coordinate time, and that those observers are at constant spatial coordinates, in the usual FRW chart does not make the chart itself a physical standard; it just makes it a useful convention.

I think you need to rethink the rest of what you are saying in the light of the above. (I can't comment on your particular application of all this since it isn't a physics application; I can only comment on the physical interpretation of the metric you have given.)
 
  • #33
[PeterDonis, post: 5046135, member: 197831"]No, this is not correct. Proper time is not a single standard of time; it is different for observers following different worldlines. Each observer always experiences proper time along his own worldline. The point I was making is that observers who are at fixed spatial coordinates in your metric do not experience coordinate time in those coordinates; that is, proper time along their worldlines, which is what they experience, is not the same as coordinate time. But coordinate time is just a convention anyway; I can transform your metric into different coordinates without changing any physics at all.

[Kurvature]
OK, observersers at a fixed comoving coordinate do NOT see "coordinate time"... what they see is
their "proper time" which happens to be DILATED COORDINATE TIME in a conformal metric.
Is that correct?

[Peter Donis]
The difference in the standard FRW case is that proper time for observers at fixed spatial coordinates, which is what those observers experience, happens to be the same as coordinate time.


[Kurvature]
Yes, proper time in FRW = coordinate time. In the conformal metric the observers
see there proper time which turns out to be DILATED COORDINATE TIME compared to
the actual coordiant time... in fact a "universal time dilation" is what they see.



[Peter Donis]
I think you need to rethink the rest of what you are saying in the light of the above.

[Kurvature]
Na... i think we have a semantics problem not a math jproblem.
 
  • #34
Kurvature said:
what they see is their "proper time"

Yes. This is true for any observer.

Kurvature said:
which happens to be DILATED COORDINATE TIME in a conformal metric.

If the function ##a(t)## has the appropriate form for "dilated" to be a reasonable description, yes, you could say this (more precisely, you could say it for observers with constant spatial coordinates in the conformal metric). But it has no physical meaning, because coordinate time has no physical meaning. It's just a convention.

Kurvature said:
proper time in FRW = coordinate time.

More precisely, proper time for observers with constant spatial coordinates = coordinate time.

Kurvature said:
in fact a "universal time dilation" is what they see.

Not just based on coordinate time, no. See above. Once again, if you want to show that there is "universal time dilation", you have to show that there is some physical invariant that demonstrates it. Just looking at coordinate time and its relationship to proper time is not enough, because, as above, coordinate time has no physical meaning.
 
  • #35
Thar a(t) curve didn't format properly... this should look better, I hope:

a(t)
oo
|x
|x
|.x
|..x
|...x
|...x
|....x
|......x
| .........x
|.............x
|...1.20......................x..........x
|
|______________________________________________________________________________________________________
0 ............time---->

a(t) starts large at birth and falls to 1.20 at age 18 and remains there.
This is accurately known and can be approximated by a simple mathematical expression.
 
  • #36
Kurvature said:
a(t) starts large at birth and falls to 1.20 at age 18 and remains there.

Once again, this isn't really a physical application of the metric in your OP, so it's really off topic for this forum and I can't comment on it.
 
  • #37
.


[Peter Donis]
If the function ##a(t)## has the appropriate form for "dilated" to be a reasonable description, yes, you could say this (more precisely, you could say it for observers with constant spatial coordinates in the conformal metric). But it has no physical meaning, because coordinate time has no physical meaning. It's just a convention.

[Kurvature]
Mentz114 analyzed the flat conformal metric ds2=a(t)[dR2-dt2] (wch. is not flat by the way since Riemann=/=0)
and found that it does NOT exhibiit a Hubble Shift. That is a REAL, PHYSICAL result. Are you going to tell me it is not a real, physical result
because "t" in the metric is only coordinate time and has no physical meaning? I seriously doubt the veracity of that assertion.


[Peter Donis]
Not just based on coordinate time, no. See above. Once again, if you want to show that there is "universal time dilation", you have to show that there is some physical invariant that demonstrates it. Just looking at coordinate time and its relationship to proper time is not enough, because, as above, coordinate time has no physical meaning.

[Kurvature]
In my particular physical application the OP conformal metric actually descriibes a real physical situation (not gravitational b.t.w.)
where it is known and directly observable and measureble that there IS a real, universal time dilation. So
again, I don't think I have to worry about your drumbeat assertion that "t" in the metric is merely
a coordinate time and has no physical meaning.
 
  • #38
[Peter Donis]
Once again, this isn't really a physical application of the metric in your OP

[Kurvature]
That's an unsupported assertion, which is demonstrably wrong. But I'm
not about to argue with you.

[Peter donis]
, so it's really off topic for this forum and I can't comment on it.[/QUOTE]

[Kurvature]
I agree that it certainly is off topic in this forum, but that does not support
your false assertion that it is not a physical application. You can't have
your cake and eat it too.
 
  • #39
Kurvature said:
That is a REAL, PHYSICAL result.

Yes (assuming the calculation is correct--as I said, I have not checked it). But it still doesn't mean that coordinate time is a physical quantity. The result is not about coordinate time; it's about redshift.

Kurvature said:
I agree that it certainly is off topic in this forum

Then please don't make claims about it in this forum. For example, this...

Kurvature said:
In my particular physical application the OP conformal metric actually descriibes a real physical situation (not gravitational b.t.w.) where it is known and directly observable and measureble that there IS a real, universal time dilation.

...is a claim that you should not be making in this forum. In this forum, we use the term "time dilation" to describe a particular set of physical phenomena in particular scenarios that have to do with relativity physics. Other usages of the term (such as the one you appear to be using) are off topic.
 
Last edited:
  • #40
[Kurvature said]
That is a REAL, PHYSICAL result.

[Peter Donis]
Yes (assuming the calculation is correct--as I said, I have not checked it). But it still doesn't mean that coordinate time is a physical quantity. The result is not about coordinate time; it's about redshift.

[Kurvature said]
I agree that it certainly is off topic in this forum

[Peter Donis]
Then please don't make claims about it in this forum. For example, this...

[Kurvature]
In my particular physical application the OP conformal metric actually descriibes a real physical
situation (not gravitational b.t.w.) where it is known and directly observable and measureble
that there IS a real, universal time dilation.

[Peter Donis]
...is a claim that you should not be making in this forum. In this forum, we use the term "time dilation" to describe a particular set of physical phenomena in particular scenarios that have to do with relativity physics. Other usages of the term (such as the one you appear to be using) are off topic

[Kurvature]
I agree, my "relativity physics" application does not coincide
with your "particular relativity physics" focus. I won't mention it any further.
I neither need to or want to.
Meanwhile, I said my thank yous and voiced my appreciation in my last post.
We're done here.
 
  • #41
Kurvature said:
We're done here.

Agreed. Thread closed.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 25 ·
Replies
25
Views
3K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
1K
Replies
130
Views
30K
  • · Replies 16 ·
Replies
16
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
6K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K