Flying_Goat
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Hi guys, I am confused about the definition of compactification of a topological space.
Suppose (X,τx) is a topological space. Define Y=X\cup{p} and a new topology τY such that U\subseteqY is open if
(1) p \notin U and U\in \tauX or
(2) p \in U and X-U is a compact closed subset of X.
To prove that (Y,τY) is compact, it seems to require X-U in (2) to be compact under τY and not τX. That is if p\in U, then any open covering {Vi}\subseteqτY of Uc=X-U, has a finite subcover. But we don't even know what our open sets {Vi} are in the first place.
Any help would be appreciated.
Suppose (X,τx) is a topological space. Define Y=X\cup{p} and a new topology τY such that U\subseteqY is open if
(1) p \notin U and U\in \tauX or
(2) p \in U and X-U is a compact closed subset of X.
To prove that (Y,τY) is compact, it seems to require X-U in (2) to be compact under τY and not τX. That is if p\in U, then any open covering {Vi}\subseteqτY of Uc=X-U, has a finite subcover. But we don't even know what our open sets {Vi} are in the first place.
Any help would be appreciated.