What is the Fourier Cosine Integral Identity for Deriving B* and A(w)?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the Fourier Cosine Integral Identity and its application in deriving the functions B* and A(w). The original poster presents an equation involving integrals and seeks to establish a relationship between two sides of an equation involving these functions.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to manipulate integrals to show the equality of two expressions involving B* and A(w). They express uncertainty about how to equate the two sides of the equation, which both involve integrals.

Discussion Status

Some participants question the clarity of the problem and whether it might be better suited for a different section of the forum. The discussion is ongoing, with participants exploring different aspects of the problem without reaching a consensus.

Contextual Notes

The original poster notes a lack of resources in their textbook, which may be impacting their ability to manipulate the integrals effectively. There are also references to images provided for clarity, indicating potential complexity in the problem setup.

madah12
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Homework Statement


show that
xf(x)=integral from 0 to infinity of [B*(w)sin(wx)]dw , // B* is a function not B * w

where B* = -dA/dw
A(w) = 2/pi integral from 0 to infinity [f(v) cos(wv)] dv

Homework Equations

f(x)=integral from 0 to infinity [A(w)cos(wx)] dw

The Attempt at a Solution



working on right hand side
B*= 2/pi * integral from 0 to infinity [vf(v)cos(wv)dv]
=integral from 0 to infinity of [2/pi * integral from 0 to infinity [vf(v)cos(wv)dv]sin(wx)]dw
left side = integral from 0 to infinity [ A(w)xcos(wx)]dw

Even when i tried writing A as integral i don't see how do i prove 2 sides which have 2 integrals in them equal each other?
 
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>_> I know I didn't do a lot of work but there is not much to work on from the book and I don't really know how to algebriacly manipulate integrals of the form g(x) = integral from 0 to infinity f(x,y)dy
 
should I repost this in engineering section?
 
those are pictures of the problem if it's not clear ><

(20)(a2)
 

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