Can't work out integral in polar coordinates

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around integrating a work expression in polar coordinates, specifically related to the work done by a frictional force during angular displacement. The original poster is attempting to evaluate an integral involving angular displacement and kinetic energy.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster considers the work done by friction and attempts to set up an integral for evaluation. They express uncertainty about the integration process and seek tips. They also explore a relationship between velocity and angular displacement, leading to a derived equation for velocity.

Discussion Status

Some participants provide feedback on the original poster's expressions, questioning the correctness of the exponent in the velocity equation and suggesting a potential sign error in the force expression. There is an ongoing exploration of these mathematical details without a clear consensus on the final formulation.

Contextual Notes

Participants are discussing the implications of frictional force and its directionality, which may affect the setup of the equations involved. The original poster's progress is noted, but there are indications of potential errors that need clarification.

etotheipi
Homework Statement
I made up a question where a car is moving around a quarter circle (from angle pi/2 to 0), where a tangential frictional force of magnitude kv acts in a direction opposite to the car's motion. It begins at the top of the quarter circle with speed u, and I want to work out its final speed. I chose to go about this in terms of energy considerations.
Relevant Equations
$$v = r \frac{d\theta}{dt}$$$$W = \int F dx$$
I considered the work done by the frictional force in an infinitesimal angular displacement:
$$dW = Frd\theta = (kr\omega) rd\theta = kr^{2} \frac{d\theta}{dt} d\theta$$I now tried to integrate this quantity from pi/2 to 0, however couldn't figure out how to do this$$W = kr^{2}\int_{\frac{\pi}{2}}^{0} \frac{d\theta}{dt} d\theta$$I was wondering if anyone could give me any tips! Thank you!Edit

I've made a little progress, I've changed the differential to$$d(\frac{1}{2}mv^{2}) = kr^{2}v d\theta$$so$$m dv = kr^{2} d\theta$$and consequently$$v = \frac{kr^{2}\theta}{m} + C$$Does this look right to anyone?
 
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I think in your final result for ##v##, the square exponent in ##r## need not be there, should be just plain ##r## (this should propagate all the way back to dK=dW equation at the top of the edit.)
 
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Delta2 said:
I think in your final result for ##v##, the square exponent in ##r## need not be there, should be just plain ##r## (this should propagate all the way back to dK=dW equation at the top of the edit.)

Ahh yes you're absolutely right. Thanks a bunch!
 
I also think there is a sign error because the force is supposed to be frictional i.e it opposes particle speed, it should be ##F=-kv##.
 
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