What is the induced emf in a coil in a changing magnetic field?

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SUMMARY

The induced electromotive force (emf) in a 100-turn, 2.0-cm-diameter coil subjected to a changing magnetic field from 0.50 T to 1.50 T over 0.60 seconds is calculated using Faraday's Law. The correct formula is E = -N * A * (dB/dt) * cos(θ), where N is the number of turns, A is the area of the coil, and θ is the angle between the magnetic field and the normal to the coil's surface. The final induced emf is determined to be approximately 52.4645 mV, accounting for the angle of 60 degrees and the correct radius of 0.01 m.

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  • Familiarity with the concept of magnetic flux (Φ = B * A * cos(θ))
  • Ability to differentiate functions with respect to time
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Homework Statement



A 100-turn, 2.0-cm-diameter coil is at rest in a horizontal plane. A uniform magnetic field away from vertical increases from 0.50 T to 1.50 T in 0.60 s. What is the induced emf (in mV) in the coil?

Homework Equations



\Phi_m = ABcos\vartheta

E = \frac{d \Phi}{dt}

The Attempt at a Solution



E = \frac{d \Phi}{dt} = \frac{d (ABcos\vartheta)}{dt} = - \pi r^2 \frac{dB}{dt}sin\vartheta

\frac{dB}{dt} = \frac{1}{.6} = 1.67 T

I can "ignore" the negative sign because I just need the absolute value, and the derivative of cos = -sin

*I forgot the number ot turns in the previous equation, but I added them in the next one*

N \pi r^2 \frac{dB}{dt}sin\vartheta = (100) \pi 0.1^2 (1.67) sin60 = 45mV

Did I make any mistakes?
 
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Your work looks correct except for the following point. (It doesn't affect your answer.)

The minus sign you ignore should cancel out anyway since:

E=-\frac{d\Phi}{dt}

You forgot the minus sign that comes from Lenz's Law.
 
in my textbook, Farady's Law is denoted in an absolute value.

apperantly I made a calculation error. I get 4.5 V = 4.5*10^-3 mV.

EDIT: I tried 45 and 4.5*10^-3, and it says I got it wrong. Any ideas?
 
I also get 4.5 V when I crunch the numbers. But 4.5V is 4500mV, not .0045mV.
 
I tried 4500 mV, but it still says it's wrong.
 
OK I think I see the problem. Your radius is.01m not .1m. Does this fix the problem?
 
Firstly, i don't understand why you've taken the angle as \frac{\pi}{3}. Since the field is vertical and the coil is in the horizontal plane, the angle is 0 i.e. the area vector and the field lines are parallel. Secondly, the angle does not change with time. Hence, the term \cos(\theta) is constant and ur mistake was taking it's derivative w.r.t time and changing it to \sin(\theta). My answer is coming out to be: 52.4645 mV [http://tinyurl.com/yv9w2k]
 
rohanprabhu said:
Firstly, i don't understand why you've taken the angle as \frac{\pi}{3}. Since the field is vertical and the coil is in the horizontal plane, the angle is 0 i.e. the area vector and the field lines are parallel. Secondly, the angle does not change with time. Hence, the term \cos(\theta) is constant and ur mistake was taking it's derivative w.r.t time and changing it to \sin(\theta). My answer is coming out to be: 52.4645 mV [http://tinyurl.com/yv9w2k]

I'm an idiot. Should have realized that.

but why did you use 0.02 instead of 0.01 since it requires the radius and not the diameter.
 
cse63146 said:
I'm an idiot. Should have realized that.

but why did you use 0.02 instead of 0.01 since it requires the radius and not the diameter.

do note that i have taken the no. of turns as '25' and not '100' i.e. i used A = \frac{\pi d^2}{4} rather than A = \pi r^2
 
  • #10
shouldnt it be 25*pi*((0.02)^2)*(1.67)*cos60 = 26.23mV?
 
Last edited:
  • #11
rohanprabhu said:
Firstly, i don't understand why you've taken the angle as \frac{\pi}{3}. Since the field is vertical and the coil is in the horizontal plane, the angle is 0 i.e. the area vector and the field lines are parallel. Secondly, the angle does not change with time. Hence, the term \cos(\theta) is constant and ur mistake was taking it's derivative w.r.t time and changing it to \sin(\theta). My answer is coming out to be: 52.4645 mV [http://tinyurl.com/yv9w2k]

Hmm. Must have misread the problem. I was under the assumption that the OP just forgot to post the angle. in the problem. I figured that his value of 60 was correct. Sorry for the confusion.
 
  • #12
G01 said:
Hmm. Must have misread the problem. I was under the assumption that the OP just forgot to post the angle. in the problem. I figured that his value of 60 was correct. Sorry for the confusion.

My idioticy has no bounds. The 30 degrees is from a different problem I'm working on and got those 2 mixed up.
 
  • #13
cse63146 said:
My idioticy has no bounds

Don't be so hard on yourself. It happens to everyone at some point or another. :smile:
 
  • #14
cse63146 said:
shouldnt it be 25*pi*((0.02)^2)*(1.67)*cos60?

does the question say so? If it does.. then yes. Because in the problem you presented, no mention of angle is given. The question presents that the plane of the coil and the field lines of the magnetic field are perpendicular. So, i took the angle to be 0.
 
  • #15
Yes, but I already did 5/6 tries on the answer, and I have 1 more before I get a 0 on this question.

Here's the full question:

A 100-turn, 2.0-cm-diameter coil is at rest in a horizontal plane. A uniform magnetic field 60 degrees away from vertical increases from 0.50 T to 1.50 T in 0.60 s.

So would this be correct 25*pi*((0.02)^2)*(1.67)*cos60 = 26.23mV?
 
  • #16
well.. if that is the full question then this should be the right answer. Is this what your textbook/assignment/whatever says?
 
  • #17
this is what it says:

http://img386.imageshack.us/img386/2509/37516342im5.jpg
 
Last edited by a moderator:
  • #18
i was actually asking what the textbook/assignment had to say about the 'answer'.. i didn't realize it then that this was a test you were giving. Anyways, all things considered, i think you should go with 23.24 or whatever the answer was that u got in ur previous post wherein you used cos(60).
 

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