You have a mistake in the last line, it is easy to prove that ##\lim_{n \to +\infty}(1-\frac{1}{n+2})^{n+2}=e^{-1}=\lim_{n \to +\infty}(1-\frac{1}{n+2})^{n}## so the final limit is 1.
Instead upper bound the series by the hyperharmonic series (p-series for p=2 )which is a well know result that it converges, hence by the comparison criterion this series converges too.