Is the Taylor Series Method Valid for Proving the Irrationality of ln(π)?

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In summary, the conversation discusses attempting to prove the irrationality of the natural logarithm of π by using the Taylor series for the function y=π^x. However, this method is not correct because any real number can be expressed as the limit of a rational sequence, as shown by the example of e.
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Aspiring
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If we set out to prove the irrationality of the natural logarithm of π (pie), by writing out the Taylor series centered at zero for the function y=π^x, with x=1, we have:

π=1+Sum(ln^k(π)/k!) from k=1 to infinity.

Since we know π is irrational, then ln(π) must be irrational or otherwise π=(a+b)/b

For integer a and b, why is this not correct?
 
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  • #2
Aspiring said:
If we set out to prove the irrationality of the natural logarithm of π (pie), by writing out the Taylor series centered at zero for the function y=π^x, with x=1, we have:

π=1+Sum(ln^k(π)/k!) from k=1 to infinity.

Since we know π is irrational, then ln(π) must be irrational or otherwise π=(a+b)/b

For integer a and b, why is this not correct?


Because any real number is the limit of a rational sequence, and series play this game, too. For example, we know the number [itex]\,e\,[/itex] is irrational, yet

$$e=\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{1}{k!}$$

so, according to your idea, we'd get that [itex]\,1\,[/itex] is irrational...

DonAntonio
 
  • #3
Aw of course, i see now, thanks.
 

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