What makes a holomorphic function non-analytic?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of holomorphic and analytic functions in complex analysis, specifically questioning the existence of a holomorphic function that is not analytic. The original poster presents the function e^{\frac{-1}{x^2}} as a candidate and explores its implications in both real and complex contexts.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand the distinction between holomorphic and analytic functions, questioning how the function e^{\frac{-1}{z^2}} fits into the established equivalence theorem despite having a Taylor series with all coefficients equal to zero.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively engaging with the original poster's inquiry, with some providing insights into the behavior of the function near singularities and discussing its continuity and differentiability in the complex plane. There is recognition of the function's essential pole at z=0 and its implications for being an entire function.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the challenges posed by the function's behavior near zero, including issues of continuity and differentiability, which are central to the discussion of holomorphic versus analytic properties.

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Homework Statement


What is a real holomorphic function which is not analytic?

Homework Equations


Theorem from complex analysis: holomorphic functions and analytic functions are the same.
Definition 1: A holomorphic function is infinitely differentiable.
Definition 2: An analytic function is locally given by a convergent power series.

The Attempt at a Solution



I think one answer is [tex]e^{\frac{-1}{x^2}}[/tex]. The function can be differentiated by the chain rule as many times as desired (so it is holomorphic) but has a Taylor series with all coefficients equal to zero (so it is not analytic).

However, I wonder about the complex-valued function [tex]e^{\frac{-1}{z^2}}[/tex]. Does it not have the same problem? That is to say, how can we show that it is consistent with the holomorphic-analytic equivalence theorem if (1) we can differentiate it infinitely many times but (2) it's Taylor series has all coefficients equal to zero?
 
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In the complex plane it's no longer continuous, let alone differentiable. Consider values near zero: for real values x that are near zero, your exponent is going to be close to negative infinity. Imagine for your value of z though you pick something like i/100000. Now your exponent is close to positive infinity, and we see that the function isn't even continuous
 
I completely overlooked that, and it was really bothering me for a long time, but it makes a lot of sense now! Thank you so much office_shredder! :)
 
yup, e^(-1/z^2) has an essential pole at z=0.
problem with the limit near the singularity. it does not behave well at that singularity at all !
it has a Laurent series representation - Analytic part (the Taylor series) and the Essential part.
so it is not a Entire function, it is not differentiable near z=0.
 

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