Where is f(z) = e-xe-iy differentiable and holomorphic?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the differentiability and holomorphic nature of the function f(z) = e-xe-iy, where z = x + iy. Participants are exploring the conditions under which this function satisfies the Cauchy-Riemann equations and whether it is entire.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss converting the function to polar form and the implications of differentiating the real and imaginary parts. There are attempts to apply the Cauchy-Riemann equations to determine holomorphicity. Some participants question the correctness of their calculations and the continuity of derivatives.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of the function's properties, with some participants suggesting alternative approaches to simplify calculations. Multiple interpretations of the function's differentiability are being examined, and while some assert it is holomorphic, others express uncertainty about their calculations.

Contextual Notes

Participants note potential errors in differentiation and the need for continuous partial derivatives for the Cauchy-Riemann equations to hold. There is also mention of assumptions regarding the treatment of z as a single variable in complex analysis.

fishturtle1
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Homework Statement


Suppose z = x + iy. Where are the following functions differentiable? Where are they holomorphic? Which are entire?

the function is f(z) = e-xe-iy

Homework Equations


∂u/∂x = ∂v/∂y

∂u/∂y = -∂v/∂x

The Attempt at a Solution


f(z) = e-xe-iy

I convert it to polar form:

f(z) = cos(xy) + isin(xy)

then i set u as the real part of the equation, and v as the complex part of the equation.

u = cos(xy)
v = isin(xy)

∂u/∂x = -ysin(xy)
∂v/∂y= ixcos(xy)

then ∂u/∂x =/= ∂v/∂y so the function is not holomorphic.

I think i did this wrong because I've done this for the majority of the problem set, and every function is coming up as not holomorphic. Is my work correct?

EDIT: I did it again and here is my new work, my other work was wrong because i multiplied exponents wrong

f(z) = e-xe-iy

= (cos(-x) + isin(-x)) * (cos(-y) + isin(-y))
= cos(-x)cos(-y) + icos(-y)sin(-x) + (-1)sin(-x)(sin-y) + isin(-x)cos(-y)

so Re(f(z)) = cos(-x)cos(-y) - sin(-x)sin(-y) = u
Im(f(z)) = cos(-y)sin(-x) + cos(-x)sin(-y) = v

then ux = -(-sin(-x)cos(-y)) + cos(-x)sin(-y)

ux = sin(-x)cos(-y) + cos(-x)sin(-y)

and vy = - (-sin(-y)sin(-x)) + cos(-x)cos(-y)

vy = sin(-y)sin(-x) - cos(-x)cos(-y)

so ux =/= vy

so f(z) is not holomorphic, and is not differentiable at all points( but may be differentiable at some points ), and is not entire because it is not differentiable at all points.
 
Last edited:
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It is holomorphic. There must be an error in your calculation. The calculations might be simpler if you leave e-x as it is, since it is a real function whose derivative you know.
 
FactChecker said:
It is holomorphic. There must be an error in your calculation. The calculations might be simpler if you leave e-x as it is, since it is a real function whose derivative you know.

I just want to confirm though, that if a complex function satisfies the Cauchy Riemann equations, then the complex function is also holomorphic. So my logic is right, but I probably just differentiated incorrectly somewhere?
 
fishturtle1 said:
I just want to confirm though, that if a complex function satisfies the Cauchy Riemann equations, then the complex function is also holomorphic.
With one caveat. The first partial derivatives of u and v must be continuous.
So my logic is right, but I probably just differentiated incorrectly somewhere?
Yes.
 
fishturtle1 said:
I just want to confirm though, that if a complex function satisfies the Cauchy Riemann equations, then the complex function is also holomorphic. So my logic is right, but I probably just differentiated incorrectly somewhere?

Thank you for the help. I think my error is when I'm converting from exponential to polar form.

f(z) = e-xe-iy

= e-iy-x

and now I need to rewrite -iy-x so that i can pull out the i, and have a real angle for my polar form.

So I know z = x+iy, then I can say -z = -iy - x

so I can rewrite: f(z) = e-z

i'm unsure of whether I can treat z as a single variable and then say that e raised to any single variable will be differentiable at all points.

Am I on the right path here? I feel like I've made a couple assumptions in differentiating e-z where z ∈ ℂ.
 
I don't think you need to make that big a change. It takes you straight into complex analysis and complex derivatives.

Just to make the calculations of your original approach easier, try:
f(z) = e-xe-iy
= e-x×(cos(-y) + isin(-y))
= e-x × cos(-y) + i*e-x ×sin(-y)
The partial derivatives of the real and imaginary parts are probably easier in that form.
 
Have you already established in class that ez is an entire function?
If so, the easiest proof is:
1) g(z) = -z and h(z)=ez are both entire functions.
2) The composition of entire functions is entire. So f(z) = h(g(z)) is entire.

If those facts have not already been established, your original approach is the right thing to do.
 

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