What's Flawed in This 0=1 Proof Using Basic Calculus?

  • Thread starter Thread starter protonchain
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Proof
AI Thread Summary
The discussion revolves around a mathematical proof involving the integral of 1/x, which leads to a paradoxical conclusion of 0 = 1. Participants analyze the steps taken in the proof, highlighting errors in the application of integration by parts. Key points include the incorrect assumption that the integral can be simplified without accounting for the constant of integration, which is essential in indefinite integrals. The correct interpretation emphasizes that the integral of 1/x results in a family of functions differing by a constant, thus avoiding the erroneous conclusion. The conversation underscores the importance of including constants in integration to maintain mathematical accuracy.
protonchain
Messages
98
Reaction score
0
Another one of those 0 = 1 proofs.

If you dislike them, please navigate away to cats doing things with captions. Otherwise stay tuned.

Tell me what's wrong (obviously I know what's wrong but I just want to put it out there for people to mull over).

Note, you need to know basic calculus.

<br /> <br /> \int \frac{1}{x} dx = \int \frac{1}{x} dx<br />

<br /> u = \frac{1}{x}<br />

<br /> dv = dx<br />

<br /> du = \frac{-1}{x^2} dx<br />

<br /> v = x<br />

<br /> \int \frac{1}{x} dx = u * v - \int v du<br />

<br /> \int \frac{1}{x} dx = \frac{1}{x} * x - \int x * \frac{-1}{x^2} dx<br />

<br /> \int \frac{1}{x} dx = 1 - \int \frac{-1}{x} dx<br />

<br /> \int \frac{1}{x} dx = 1 + \int \frac{1}{x} dx<br />

<br /> 0 = 1<br />
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Right off the bat, u = \frac{{dv}}{x} = dx makes no sense. The second line makes no sense either... am i completely missing something?
 
Sorry those are supposed to be separate. I will edit that in.

This is what it should look like

<br /> u = \frac{1}{x}<br />

<br /> dv = dx<br />

I have also added an extra step just to show that I am going to be using integration by parts to do the "proof"
 
\int \frac{1}{x} dx = 1 - \int \frac{-1}{x} dx isn't valid. Integration by part goes like:

\int\limits_a^b {udv} = [uv]_a^b - \int\limits_a^b {vdu}

The term you think is 1 is actually 0.
 
We are dealing with antiderivatives. So, given F(x) and G(x) that are antiderivatives of 1/x, it is true that F(x) = G(x) + C, for some constant C. For example, the second to last line you have can be written as

ln(x) + C = 1 + ln(x) + D for some constants C, and D. We do not then conclude that 0 = 1.

The integral of 1/x dx is a FAMILY of functions that all differ by a constant.
 
I only got to the end of the second sentence
 
Russell has the right answer. To be strictly correct, the rule for integration by parts is better written as

\int u dv = u*v - \int v du + C

We drop the arbitrary constant because it is implied by the very use of indefinite integrals, or antiderivatives. The inverse of the derivative is not unique.
 
Russell and D_H are correct, the constant term is missing. Gj guys :)
 
protonchain said:
Russell and D_H are correct, the constant term is missing. Gj guys :)

and Pengwuino too. You either put in constants of integration, or use definite integrals. Either way resolves the error.
 
  • #10
Right, but since I defined the problem in the start as indefinite integrals, I was looking for the answer that was related to indefinite integrals. Anyways. It's just a simple problem
 
Back
Top