When is an integral infinite help

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves determining the integrability of the function f(x,y) = xy/(x^2+y^2)^2 on the set [-1,1]×[-1,1] with respect to the Lebesgue measure. The original poster questions how the double integrals can exist if the function is deemed non-integrable.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Conceptual clarification

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the conditions for integrability and the implications of the function's behavior at the point (0,0). Questions arise regarding the boundaries of the integral and the continuity of the function.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants clarifying notation and exploring the implications of the function's discontinuity. Some guidance has been offered regarding the interpretation of the integral and the nature of the function's measurability.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted confusion regarding the integrability of the function and the conditions under which the double integrals exist, particularly in relation to the behavior of the function at the origin.

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Homework Statement


The problem is this:

Let f : R^2 -> R be

[tex]f(x,y) = \frac{xy}{(x^2+y^2)^2}\qquad (x,y)\neq(0,0)[/tex]

With [itex]f(0,0) = 0[/itex].

Question:
Is [itex]f[/itex] integrable with respect to the Lebesguemeasure [itex]m_2[/itex] om the set [itex][-1,1]\times[-1,1][/itex]?

The Attempt at a Solution



Well [itex]f[/itex] is integrable if and only is

[tex]\int_{[-1,1]^2} \vert f\vert\,dm_2(x,y) < \infty[/tex]

The integral is infinite, and so f isn't integrable.
The thing that makes it confusing, is that in the next problem it says,
Show that both the double integrals exist

[tex]\int_{[-1,1]}\left(\int_{[-1,1]} f(x,y)\,dm(x)\right)dm(y)[/tex]
[tex]\int_{[-1,1]}\left(\int_{[-1,1]} f(x,y)\,dm(y)\right)dm(x)[/tex]

But how can they exist if f isn't integrable?


EDIT:
Hmm I had made an error. It did seem kinda wired that the integral of a positive would give me something like [itex]\infty-\infty[/itex]. The integral is infinite though. The expression I had found would only hold for y > 0.
 
Last edited:
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First question : Dont you think that the integral should have two boundaries? its from [-1,1] to what? please try to be more specific so we can help
 
Actually [-1,1] is not a point it's the interval from -1 to 1. That's just another way of writting the integral of the function f(x,y) from -1 to 1 with respect to x (hence I have writtin m(x), the Lebesgue measure with respect x).
 
I assume that the notation "[-1,1]2" means [itex]-1\le x\le 1[/itex] and [itex]-1\le y\le 1[/itex]. A function is as long as the set of points on which it is NOT continuous is a measurable set. For what points is this function not continuous?
 
HallsofIvy said:
I assume that the notation "[-1,1]2" means [itex]-1\le x\le 1[/itex] and [itex]-1\le y\le 1[/itex].

Yep, that's the square I'm talking about.

HallsofIvy said:
A function is [what?] as long as the set of points on which it is NOT continuous is a measurable set. For what points is this function not continuous?

What is the function if it's not defined on a measurable set? Integrable or measurable?
The function is measurable though, since as f is only discontinuous at the point (0,0), and we just define f(0,0)=0, and make f defined on the whole square.
 

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