When is the test inconclusive for p=1 in UK series?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of series, specifically focusing on the case when p=1 in the context of the p-series test. Participants explore the implications of this condition and question the behavior of specific series.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants attempt to understand when the test is inconclusive for p=1 and discuss examples of series that diverge or converge. Questions arise about the definitions and implications of convergence in relation to different series.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing examples and counterexamples to illustrate their points. Some guidance has been offered regarding the nature of convergence and the limitations of the ratio test when p=1, although there is no explicit consensus on certain interpretations.

Contextual Notes

There are ongoing questions about the definitions of variables and the behavior of series under different conditions, indicating a need for further clarification on the concepts being discussed.

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Homework Statement


when the test is inconclusive when p = 1? when p=1 , the sum of uk will grow bigger , to infinity , right ?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


let's say uk = 2 , uk_2 = 2 , so as uk_3 ,l uk_4 ... the sum of all of them will beocme infinity , right?[/B]
 

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foo9008 said:

Homework Statement


when the test is inconclusive when p = 1? when p=1 , the sum of uk will grow bigger , to infinity , right ?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


let's say uk = 2 , uk_2 = 2 , so as uk_3 ,l uk_4 ... the sum of all of them will beocme infinity , right?[/B]
When p=1, the test is inconclusive, meaning that the series may or may not converge.
Your example indeed diverges.
What about the series defined by ##v_n=\frac{1}{n²}## (for ##n \in \mathbb N,\ n\neq 0##)?
 
Samy_A said:
When p=1, the test is inconclusive, meaning that the series may or may not converge.
Your example indeed diverges.
What about the series defined by ##v_n=\frac{1}{n²}## (for ##n \in \mathbb N,\ n\neq 0##)?
it will diverge , right ? why it is said to be inconclusive ?
 
Last edited:
foo9008 said:
it will converge , right ? why it is said to be inconclusive ?
Yes, it will converge.

This shows that ##\rho =1## doesn't tell you anything about convergence or not of the series.
Your series ##u_n## has a ratio ##\rho =1##, and diverges.
My series ##v_n## has a ratio ##\rho =1##, and converges.

That is what is meant with inconclusive: when ##\rho =1##, you have to find another method to determine whether the series converges or diverges.
 
Samy_A said:
Yes, it will converge.

This shows that ##\rho =1## doesn't tell you anything about convergence or not of the series.
Your series ##u_n## has a ratio ##\rho =1##, and diverges.
My series ##v_n## has a ratio ##\rho =1##, and converges.

That is what is meant with inconclusive: when ##\rho =1##, you have to find another method to determine whether the series converges or diverges.
sorry , i made a typo in the previous post , i mean it will DIVERGE , let's say we have 1/ (100^2) , we have 200 terms of 1/ (100^2) , we will get sum of them = 0.02 , if there are 300 of them , we will get 0.03 ...
 
foo9008 said:
sorry , i made a typo in the previous post , i mean it will DIVERGE , let's say we have 1/ (100^2) , we have 200 terms of 1/ (100^2) , we will get sum of them = 0.02 , if there are 300 of them , we will get 0.03 ...
No, it really converges.

If you take the partial sum up to some number ##N##, you will indeed see that:
##\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^N \frac{1}{n²} \geq \sum_{n=1}^N \frac{1}{N²} =\frac{N}{N²}=\frac{1}{N}##.
But why would that imply divergence?
(See @Ray Vickson post about the proof that the series converges.)

For the harmonic series, you can group the terms in such a way that it follows that the limit of the partial sums is +∞. (See @stevendaryl 's post.)
You can't do this with this series.
 
Samy_A said:
No, it really converges.

If you take the partial sum up to some number ##N##, you will indeed see that:
##\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^N \frac{1}{n²} \geq \sum_{n=1}^N \frac{1}{N²} =\frac{N}{N²}=\frac{1}{N}##.
But why would that imply divergence?
(See @Ray Vickson post about the proof that the series converges.)

For the harmonic series, you can group the terms in such a way that it follows that the limit of the partial sums is +∞. (See @stevendaryl 's post.)
You can't do this with this series.
why the small n is replaced by big N ? they are not the same , right ? the sum of them should be N(1/n^2) , right ?
 
foo9008 said:
what do u mean by small n and BIG N ? what's the difference ?
##N## represent a fixed, chosen number, like you chose 200 or 300 in post #5.
##n## is the summation index.

##\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^N \frac{1}{n²}=\frac{1}{1}+\frac{1}{2²}+\frac{1}{3²}+\dots +\frac{1}{(N-1)²}+\frac{1}{N²}##
If N=300, then
##\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^N \frac{1}{n²}=\sum_{n=1}^{300} \frac{1}{n²}=\frac{1}{1}+\frac{1}{2²}+\frac{1}{3²}+\dots +\frac{1}{299²}+\frac{1}{300²}##
 
foo9008 said:
what do u mean by small n and BIG N ? what's the difference ?
N is a fixed number that is reasonably large. n is the index on the summation, taking on the values 1, 2, 3, ..., up to N.

Also, "text-speak" such as "u" for "you" isn't allowed on this forum.
 
  • #10
Samy_A said:
##N## represent a fixed, chosen number, like you chose 200 or 300 in post #5.
##n## is the summation index.

##\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^N \frac{1}{n²}=\frac{1}{1}+\frac{1}{2²}+\frac{1}{3²}+\dots +\frac{1}{(N-1)²}+\frac{1}{N²}##
If N=300, then
##\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^N \frac{1}{n²}=\sum_{n=1}^{300} \frac{1}{n²}=\frac{1}{1}+\frac{1}{2²}+\frac{1}{3²}+\dots +\frac{1}{299²}+\frac{1}{300²}##
why the n inside the (1/n^2) not a fixed number? since we have p (ratio) =1
 
  • #11
foo9008 said:
why the n inside the (1/n^2) not a fixed number? since we have p (ratio) =1
Why should it?
The ##n## is not fixed, it is the summation index in ##\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}u_n##.

The ration ##\rho## is defined by ##\rho=\displaystyle \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}\frac{|u_{n+1}|}{|u_n|}##.
##\rho=1## doesn't mean that ##\frac{|u_{n+1}|}{|u_n|}=1## for some (or all) ##n##, but that the limit of these ratio's is 1.
 
Last edited:
  • #12
foo9008 said:
why the n inside the (1/n^2) not a fixed number? since we have p (ratio) =1
n isn't fixed -- the exponent 2 is fixed. p is not the ratio in the Ratio Test -- it's the exponent in ##\frac 1 {n^p}##.

Please take more time to read these tests more carefully.
 

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