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When moving at the speed of light time stops

  1. Dec 29, 2012 #1
    If when you're moving at the speed of light time freezes, why then does it take light 8 minutes to reach the earth from the sun?
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Dec 29, 2012 #2

    ghwellsjr

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    Do you think maybe it's because you're not moving at the speed of light?
     
  4. Dec 29, 2012 #3
    What do you mean?
     
  5. Dec 29, 2012 #4
    time flow is observer dependent in relativity. 8 minutes is measured from an observer on earth for example.
     
  6. Dec 29, 2012 #5
    Pauli's exclusion principal???
     
  7. Dec 29, 2012 #6

    Dale

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    How could that possibly be relevant?

    You may want to read the FAQ on the rest frame of a photon:
    https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=511170

    Basically your opening statement "when you're moving at the speed of light time freezes" is fundamentally invalid.
     
  8. Dec 29, 2012 #7

    phinds

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    As has already been pointed out, you CAN'T move at the speed of light. However, light can, so the second part of your question is meaningful.

    Do you understand the concept of distance = rate x time ? Rewritten as time = distance/rate, you could use this to figure out how long it would take you to go 1 mile if you are going 60 miles an hour. How about you apply this to light traveling from the sun to the earth.

    EDIT: Do you understand that all I've done here is expand post #2 ?
     
  9. Dec 29, 2012 #8
    basically Einstein's own question 'what happens if i move at speed of light' is not answered in his theory since nobody can move with that speed (no clock neither)
     
  10. Dec 29, 2012 #9
    Okay, I think there is an interesting question here. I did read the FAQ before posting.

    So far we know that because an axiom of the theory of special relativity is that light moves at c, we cannot use that theory to describe time dilation for a photon. One might still ask, DO we have a theory that suggests the meaning of time for a photon? I am still curious.

    Or maybe I have misunderstood something?

    Edit:

    In the FAQ the last bit is "The concept doesn't make sense."

    I guess I'm asking if in some other theoretical framework it does make sense?
     
  11. Dec 29, 2012 #10

    Dale

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    Not that I am aware of.
     
  12. Dec 29, 2012 #11
    in hofstadter's book goedel escher bach it is called the mu-method of answering a question by -deasking- it.
     
  13. Dec 29, 2012 #12

    pervect

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    No. There is a sort of geometry that describes photon's worldlines, and one's ability to make "equally spaced" marks along them, even though one cannot assign a non-zero value to the spacing of the marks.

    THis sort of geometry is called an "affine geometry".

    It's an interesting topic, but it's a mistake to think of it as having all the properties of "time". That tends to lead only to self contradictions and confusion.
     
  14. Dec 29, 2012 #13

    russ_watters

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    Your question started:
    But you're not moving at the speed of light. You are stationary. The light is moving at the speed of light.
     
  15. Dec 30, 2012 #14
    I'm not talking about me moving at the speed of light, I'm talking about light itself! Light is moving at the speed of light (obviously!) Shouldn't time freeze for light and arrive instantly - since time has stopped for it!?
     
  16. Dec 30, 2012 #15

    pervect

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    You have some a notion of time, and you assume that light must have some sense of it too. And this idea is wrong.

    Time is something that can be measured, and assigned values. This gives geometry a metric structure. We can say "the interval between point A and point B is C seconds".

    The geometry of light has an affine nature - it doesn't have measurable "time intervals" at all. We can order A, B, and C, but we can't assign any meaningful numerical intervals to the "distance" between them.
     
  17. Dec 30, 2012 #16
    You've been a great help, but from the last paragraph I only understood that time doesn't have measurable time intervals! But why?
     
  18. Dec 30, 2012 #17

    pervect

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    Suppose you have a nice standard plane polarized radio wave.

    If you calculate the invariant time interval, also known as the "proper time" between any two points on the light wave according to relativity, the number you get will be zero.

    However, any given observer can mark points along the wave at which the E-field is zero at any given time. And he'll find these points will be evenly spaced. This "even spacing" property happens in spite of the fact that all the proper time intervals are zero.

    The distance from A to B, from A to C, and from B to C, measured using the invarinat interval, will all be zero. However, there is a unique point C such that AB and BC are "evenly spaced". This is the affine geometry of the light wave.

    The exact spacing depends on the ight wave and the observer. One observer might see an AM radio wave with a 300 meter wavelength - a relativistically travelling observer might see it as much shorter, or longer, due to the doppler effect,
     
  19. Dec 30, 2012 #18
    So light takes time to reach between two points because I (the observer) can feel/ measure time differently from the Light ??
     
  20. Dec 30, 2012 #19

    Dale

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    That seems like a good way to put it. In your reference frame you are not moving at the speed of light, you experience time, and in your frame light takes time to go from A to B. And light doesn't have a reference frame of its own.
     
  21. Dec 30, 2012 #20
    Thank you all, you have been a great help.
    Last post puts it straight and simple.
     
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