When using stokes theorem to remove integrals

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the application of Stokes' Theorem and the Divergence Theorem in the context of the continuity equation, specifically the equation \(\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\iiint_V \rho dV = -\iiint_{V} \nabla \cdot \big( \rho \vec{v} \big) dV\). Participants clarify that interchanging the time derivative and the volume integral is valid due to the independence of spatial coordinates from time. Furthermore, dropping the volume integrals is justified as the integrands must be equal when the integrals are over the same arbitrary volume, following the fundamental theorem of calculus. The necessity of taking a limit as \(V \to 0\) is also discussed, emphasizing the importance of rigorous mathematical procedures in these transformations.

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hey pf!

i had a question. namely, in the continuity equation we see that \frac{\partial}{\partial t}\iiint_V \rho dV = -\iint_{S} \rho \vec{v} \cdot d\vec{S} and we may use the divergence theorem to have: \frac{\partial}{\partial t}\iiint_V \rho dV = -\iiint_{V} \nabla \cdot \big( \rho \vec{v} \big) dV
ultimately, we arrive at: \frac{\partial}{\partial t}\bigg( \rho \bigg) = -\nabla \cdot \big( \rho \vec{v} \big)
my question is, at this point, how are we able to do the following two things:
1 interchange ##\frac{\partial}{\partial t}## inside the volume integral?
2 drop the volume integrals entirely?

i should say that the volume is arbitrary, and from what i remember, we have to do something like ##\lim_{V \to 0}## but i don't know the formal, mathematical procedure here.

can someone please help me out?

thanks!
 
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Here is some typical reasoning:
1. The spatial coordinates themselves are independent of time, so performing time differentiation before or after has no effect on the result (provided the integration is definite).
2. The integrals are over the same *arbitrary* volume. If they are equal then the integrands must indeed be equal. This follows naturally from the fundamental theorem of calculus for definite integration.
 
Last edited:
cwilkins said:
2. The integrals are over the same *arbitrary* volume. If they are equal then the integrands must indeed be equal. This follows naturally from the fundamental theorem of calculus for definite integration.
but why do we need to take a limit?
 

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