Where did this 1/4*ln(C) term come from when integrating?

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Homework Statement


The givenequation is this: [tex] \frac{1}{4} \frac {du}{(2-u)} \ + \ \frac{1}{4} \frac{du}{(2+u)} \ = \frac{dx}{x}[/tex]
My book says that when integrated, the above equation becomes [tex] \frac{-1}{4} \ln (2-u) \ + \ \frac{1}{4} \ln (2+u) \ = \ln (x) + \frac{1}{4} \ln (c)[/tex]

I understand everything except for the final term of the last equation. where did the [itex]\frac{1}{4} \ln (c)[/itex] come from and shouldn't it just be c as the constant of integration?

Homework Equations


[tex]\frac{1}{4} \frac {du}{(2-u)} \ + \ \frac{1}{4} \frac{du}{(2+u)} \ = \frac{dx}{x}[/tex]
[tex]\frac{-1}{4} \ln (2-u) \ + \ \frac{1}{4} \ln (2+u) \ = \ln (x) + \frac{1}{4} \ln (c)[/tex]



The Attempt at a Solution



Integrating [tex]\frac{dx}{x}[/tex] gives you [tex]\ln(x) + c[/tex].
 
on Phys.org
[itex]\frac14 \ln c[/itex] is an arbitrary constant. Presumably writing it in that form rather than as [itex]D[/itex] makes solving for [itex]u[/itex] much more convenient.

If [itex]f: U \to \mathbb{R}[/itex] is a surjection, then it is perfectly legitimate to take [itex]f(C)[/itex] for some [itex]C \in U \subset \mathbb{R}[/itex] as a constant of integration rather than [itex]D \in \mathbb{R}[/itex].
 
So then any term as the constant would make sense? E.g. the book could've used [itex]\frac{1}{8} \ln(c) \text{or}\ 3\ln(c)[/itex] as the last term in the integrated equation? I'm just a little confused how they got [itex]\frac{1}{4} \ln(c)[/itex].
 
I got that [tex]u = \frac{2cx^4-2}{1+cx^4}[/tex]. I still don't see why the form was chosen.