hello, i'm wondering where this law comes from. i'm currently reading Feynman's lectures. I skipped some parts but i don't think it says where it comes from. does anyone here know of a link, a book or the part in Feyman's lectures which mentions the origin of it? i know Maxwell's equations have been verified by experience but is this law really to be taken as an 'axiom' while it isn't connected with other facts (like coloumb's law and relativity) or has it been explained already? by the way, i have the same question about ampere's law/ bio-savart's law. i know one can be deduced from the other but how are these laws a consequence of 'simpler' known facts? edit:i think the english word i'm looking for is 'derivation'. in the book i mentioned above it is described the idea of how the magnetic field comes from the special theory of relativity plus the equations for electrostatics. i'm wondering if the same doesn't apply to faraday's law since it deals with time, and time is dependent on the referential.