Where does faraday's law come from (law of induction)

[DaNiEl!]

hello,
i'm wondering where this law comes from. I'm currently reading Feynman's lectures. I skipped some parts but i don't think it says where it comes from. does anyone here know of a link, a book or the part in Feyman's lectures which mentions the origin of it? i know Maxwell's equations have been verified by experience but is this law really to be taken as an 'axiom' while it isn't connected with other facts (like coloumb's law and relativity) or has it been explained already? by the way, i have the same question about ampere's law/ bio-savart's law. i know one can be deduced from the other but how are these laws a consequence of 'simpler' known facts?

edit:i think the english word I'm looking for is 'derivation'. in the book i mentioned above it is described the idea of how the magnetic field comes from the special theory of relativity plus the equations for electrostatics. I'm wondering if the same doesn't apply to faraday's law since it deals with time, and time is dependent on the referential.

 

[TVP45]

The original came from Michael Faraday's experiments and his extremely powerful intuition. He did not derive it in the way we normally think of derivation today. I believe the argument is in Experimental Researches in Electricity (or a name close to that). Try Googling that.

Clerk Maxwell really put the math in Faraday's Law.

 

[DaNiEl!]

Alright, i have found the book through google and i'll see if i find it in my university's library. Thank you.

 

[cabraham]

special relativity & e/m

hello,
i'm wondering where this law comes from. I'm currently reading Feynman's lectures. I skipped some parts but i don't think it says where it comes from. does anyone here know of a link, a book or the part in Feyman's lectures which mentions the origin of it? i know Maxwell's equations have been verified by experience but is this law really to be taken as an 'axiom' while it isn't connected with other facts (like coloumb's law and relativity) or has it been explained already? by the way, i have the same question about ampere's law/ bio-savart's law. i know one can be deduced from the other but how are these laws a consequence of 'simpler' known facts?

edit:i think the english word I'm looking for is 'derivation'. in the book i mentioned above it is described the idea of how the magnetic field comes from the special theory of relativity plus the equations for electrostatics. I'm wondering if the same doesn't apply to faraday's law since it deals with time, and time is dependent on the referential.

If you desire to relate the electric and magnetic fields to special relativity, I would direct you to Einstein's 1905 paper "On the Electrodynamics of Moving Bodies". It's a free download, and a Google search should turn it up. If you don't find it, e-mail me and I'll send it to you. BR.