Which is the correct solution: -1/2*cos^2(x) or 1/2*sin^2(x)?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the integral of sin(x)cos(x) and whether it can be represented as either -1/2*cos^2(x) or 1/2*sin^2(x). Participants are exploring the uniqueness of antiderivatives and the implications of constants of integration in indefinite integrals.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts integration by parts with different choices for u and dv, leading to two expressions for the integral. Some participants question the nature of antiderivatives and the role of constants of integration, while others explore the implications of evaluating definite versus indefinite integrals.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights into the nature of antiderivatives and constants. There is recognition that both expressions can be valid under certain conditions, and the conversation is exploring deeper implications of integration techniques.

Contextual Notes

Participants are considering the uniqueness of antiderivatives and the impact of limits of integration on the results. The discussion touches on the concept of arbitrary constants in indefinite integrals.

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Homework Statement


The integral of sin(x)*cos(x) either equals -1/2*cos^2(x) or 1/2*sin^2(x). Which is it? It can't be both, right?

Homework Equations


[tex]\int[/tex]udv=u*v-[tex]\int[/tex]vdu

The Attempt at a Solution


integration by parts:
u=cos(x) dv=sin(x)dx
du=-sin(x)dx v=-cos(x)

-cos^2(x)-[tex]\int[/tex]sin(x)*cos(x)
so:
2*[tex]\int[/tex]sin(x)*cos(x)=cos^2(x)

but can't it also be done this way?

u=sin(x) dv=cos(x)dx
du=cos(x)dx v=sin(x)

sin^2(x)-[tex]\int[/tex]sin(x)*cos(x)
so:
2*[tex]\int[/tex]sin(x)*cos(x)=sin^2(x)
 
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Actually, it can. Antiderivatives are unique only up to additive constant, and
[tex]\frac{1}{2}\sin^2 x = \frac{1}{2}(1-\cos^2 x)=\frac{1}{2} - \frac{1}{2}\cos^2 x[/tex]
and so, derivatives of this two functions are equal.
 
Okay, I get it. If you put the limits of integration into the integral then you get the same answer, but if you leave it as an indefinite integral, the constants of integration are different. Right?
 
the constant is arbitrary, so a fixed constant plus an arbitrary constant is still arbitrary. think of indefinite integration as generating a stack of vertically identical antiderivatives two of which are the same minus some constant from each. but what happens when you find the total indefinite integration of a multiple integral?
 
It all makes sense now. Thank you.

To answer your question,

When you find the total indefinite integration of a multiple integral, then the "constants of integration" are not actually constants, but function of the other independent variable.
 

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