Why Can't Diamagnetism Occur in Classical Mechanics?

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Why diamagnetism can't occur in classical mechanics?

Where can I know more about that?

Thanks
 
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But it does! Any application of Lenz's law where a magnetic moment tries to oppose change in an applied field is essentially the classical equivalent of diamagnetism.
 
What about the Bohr-van Leeuwen theorem?
Doesn't it states that there is no diamagnetism in classic mechanics?
 
Bohr-van Leeuwen is a theorem ruling out magnetic ordering in classical mechanics. However, diamagnetism is a response to a magnetic field, not a type of magnetic ordering, so all is well.
 

Thread 'Instantaneous dipole moment and orbitals'

Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...
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