- #1
enricfemi
- 195
- 0
I know the Liouville's theorem. but i just can't understand.
so i considered an example of friction:
ma=-bv;
and the Lagrange is:
L=1/2 mv[tex]^{2}[/tex]+bxv
/b is a coefficient of friction/
after i substituted it into Hamilton formulation, it turns out to be:
ma=0
so the friction is vanished.
but what's wrong?
so i considered an example of friction:
ma=-bv;
and the Lagrange is:
L=1/2 mv[tex]^{2}[/tex]+bxv
/b is a coefficient of friction/
after i substituted it into Hamilton formulation, it turns out to be:
ma=0
so the friction is vanished.
but what's wrong?