Why do Fourier series require specific limits for integration?

Click For Summary
Fourier series integration limits can vary based on the function's properties, particularly its symmetry. For even functions, using t1 = -T/2 simplifies calculations by allowing the integral to be halved. The choice of limits, such as -pi to pi or 0 to T/2, depends on the function's behavior over its period. In cases where the function is zero for part of the period, starting from 0 can eliminate unnecessary calculations. Understanding these limits enhances the efficiency of solving Fourier series problems.
ranju
Messages
221
Reaction score
3

Homework Statement


The major problem I am facing while solving for Fourier series is about the limits to be taken while integrating..!
In the general equation of Fourier series the upper & lower limits are t1 & t1+T respectively..while solving for even functions we take t1 =-T/2..! Why is it so..?? does this have something to do with the symmetry across y-axis??
In the 2 attached waveforms , in the first one , limits were like -pi to pi..while in 2nd limits are 0 to T/2.>! I am not getting this..![/B]

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution



The limits are t1 to t1+T whre T is the time period..but I am not getting how to decide value of t1..!
[/B]
 

Attachments

  • IMG_20140927_232752.jpg
    IMG_20140927_232752.jpg
    35.1 KB · Views: 471
  • IMG_20140927_231909.jpg
    IMG_20140927_231909.jpg
    42.4 KB · Views: 483
Physics news on Phys.org
ranju said:
In the general equation of Fourier series the upper & lower limits are t1 & t1+T respectively..while solving for even functions we take t1 =-T/2..! Why is it so..?? does this have something to do with the symmetry across y-axis??

You have a function that is periodic with a period ##T##. From the point of view of the theory, it makes no difference what value of ##t_1## you use, it will not affect the result (try it for yourself). Therefore, it is best to take the most convenient limits for the integration. If the function is even, using ##t_1 = -T/2## could save you from the full integral, by taking twice the integral from ##t_1## to ##t_1 + T/2##.

ranju said:
In the 2 attached waveforms , in the first one , limits were like -pi to pi..while in 2nd limits are 0 to T/2.>! I am not getting this..!
The second case is somewhat similar to what I mentionned. Since the function is 0 for half the period, starting from 0 allows you to end at ##T/2##, since the integral from ##T/2## to ##T## results in 0.
 
  • Like
Likes ranju
Ohkk.. I have got the difference..! thanks for the help...
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
5K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
6K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
5K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 26 ·
Replies
26
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
6K
Replies
17
Views
6K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
4K