Why does gravitational Laplace's equation equal zero?

AI Thread Summary
The discussion focuses on understanding how Laplace's equation equals zero in empty space for a gravitational field. The gravitational potential is expressed as φ = -Gm/r, and the user seeks to derive this in Cartesian coordinates to show that ∇²φ = 0 when outside a mass. They initially struggle with the calculation, not obtaining zero when evaluating the Laplacian. The conversation highlights the utility of spherical coordinates for simplifying the Laplacian operator, making it easier to demonstrate that the Laplacian of the potential indeed equals zero in empty space. The importance of correctly applying coordinate transformations in physics is emphasized.
peter46464
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I'm struggling here so please excuse if I'm writing nonsense. I'm trying to understand how, for a gravitational field, Laplace's equation (I think that's the right name) equals zero in empty space.

I understand that the gravitational potential field, a scalar field, is given by \phi=\frac{-Gm}{r} where \phi is the gravitational potential energy of a unit mass in a gravitational field g. The gradient of this is (a vector field) g=-\nabla\phi=-\left(\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial x},\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial y},\frac{\partial\phi}{\partial z}\right) And the divergence of this vector field is \nabla\cdot\nabla\phi=\nabla^{2}\phi=4\pi G\rho and is called Poisson's equation. If the point is outside of the mass, then \rho=0 and Poisson's equation becomes\nabla\cdot\nabla\phi=0 (Laplace's equation). My question is, how do I express \phi=\frac{-Gm}{r} as a function of x,y,z so I can then end up with \nabla\cdot\nabla\phi=0 in empty space? I would have thought that I could write \phi=\frac{-Gm}{r}=\frac{-Gm}{\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}} but when I try to calculate \nabla\cdot\nabla\phi from this, I don't get zero. I do this by assuming (in the simplest case) that both y and z are zero and then taking second derivative of \phi=\frac{-Gm}{r}which should be zero (shouldn't it?) but isn't zero. What am I doing wrong? As simple as possible please.
Thank you
 
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My mistake. Not sure why but I can't simplify like that. The Laplacian of \phi=\frac{-Gm}{r}=\frac{-Gm}{\sqrt{x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}}}is (I used the WolframAlpha calculator, which I've only recently discovered - it's very good!)\nabla\cdot\nabla\phi=Gm\left(\frac{2x^{2}-y^{2}-z^{2}+2y^{2}-x^{2}-z^{2}+2z^{2}-x^{2}-y^{2}}{\left(x^{2}+y^{2}+z^{2}\right)^{5/2}}\right)=0
 
It is much easier to demonstrate this using the representation of the Laplace operator in spherical polar coordinate:
\Delta = \frac{1}{r^2} \frac{\partial}{\partial r} r^2 \frac{\partial}{\partial r}
 
How does that work?
 
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