Why Does the Fourier Coefficient Formula Fail for r=0?

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the Fourier coefficient formula and its application to even functions, particularly focusing on the case where the coefficient index r equals zero. Participants explore the implications of having r in the denominator of the coefficient expression and the resulting issues when evaluating the series for r=0.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the validity of the Fourier series coefficients for even functions and the complications that arise when r=0. They question the reliability of expressions derived for coefficients when substituting r=0, particularly in relation to integrals that yield undefined forms.

Discussion Status

The conversation is ongoing, with participants sharing insights about the behavior of Fourier coefficients and the necessity of careful evaluation of integrals. Some guidance has been provided regarding the treatment of specific cases, but no consensus has been reached on a definitive approach to the problem.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the integral expressions for Fourier coefficients may not apply uniformly across all values of r, particularly at r=0, leading to potential misunderstandings in the evaluation process. The discussion also highlights the importance of recognizing when certain mathematical expressions become nonsensical.

zezima1
Messages
119
Reaction score
0
The expressions for the coefficients of a Fourier series are valid for all integers [0;n].
Though sometimes when I evaluate the Fourier series of an even function (composed only of cosines) I get an expression for the r'th coefficient, which has r in the demoninator. It could be for instance:

ar = (-1)r/(rπ)

Since division by zero is not allowed this expression doesn't hold for the r=0, i.e. the first coefficient in the sum of cosines. What is that, that is not reversible, in the proces of solving the integral for the r'th coefficient? Because the integral expression clearly works for all r.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
zezima1 said:
The expressions for the coefficients of a Fourier series are valid for all integers [0;n].
Though sometimes when I evaluate the Fourier series of an even function (composed only of cosines) I get an expression for the r'th coefficient, which has r in the demoninator. It could be for instance:

ar = (-1)r/(rπ)

Since division by zero is not allowed this expression doesn't hold for the r=0, i.e. the first coefficient in the sum of cosines. What is that, that is not reversible, in the proces of solving the integral for the r'th coefficient? Because the integral expression clearly works for all r.

I'm guessing you are thinking of an example where you are given something like ##f(x) = 3## on ##(0,\pi)## and you are trying to write a FS for its even extension. The ##b_n## are all zero for an even function. You have $$
a_n=\frac 2 {\pi} \int_0^{\pi} f(x)\cos(nx)\, dx = \frac 2 {\pi} \int_0^{\pi} 3\cos(nx)\, dx
=\frac 6 {\pi}\left . \frac{\sin(nx)}{n} \right | _0^{\pi} = 0$$This gives the incorrect value for ##a_0##.The reason for this is that for ##n=0## you would be saying that$$
\int \cos (0x) = \frac {\sin (0x)}{0} = 0$$That formula doesn't make any sense and doesn't apply when ##n=0## because there would be no cosine in the integral. The integral for ##a_0## is$$
a_0=\frac 1 \pi \int_0^\pi f(x)\, dx = \frac 1 \pi \int_0^\pi 3\, dx=3$$
 
hmm yes, I see. So in general, even if you get an expression for the r'th coefficient, where putting r=0 would make sense, you can't trust that to get you the right value for a0 right?
 
You just have to be careful that you don't get senseless expressions. For example, when you have an integral like$$
\int_0^\pi \sin(nx)\sin(mx)\,dx$$ where ##m## and ##n## are integers, you would use the product formulas to change the product of sines to a sum:$$
\sin(mx)\sin(nx)=\frac 1 2 (\cos((m-n)x)-\cos((m+n)x)$$If you integrate that you will get$$
\left. \frac 1 2 \left(\frac {\sin(m-n)x}{m-n}-\frac{\sin(m+n)x}{m+n}\right)\right |_0^\pi=0$$If you don't notice that ##m-n## in the denominator, you might say the integral is zero for all ##m## and ##n##, which is similar to the problem you are mentioning. But the calculations don't make sense when ##m=n##, which is why the answer can't be trusted. But you wouldn't want to actually do the integral that way anyway if ##m=n## because you would use the double angle angle formula:$$
\sin^2(nx)=\frac {1-\cos(2nx)}{2}$$not a product formula.
 
But... but... the double angle formula IS the product formula!

THE CAKE IS A LIE

hmm yes, I see. So in general, even if you get an expression for the r'th coefficient, where putting r=0 would make sense, you can't trust that to get you the right value for a0 right?

For example, if your function is a constant function all your higher coefficients are going to be 0. Plug in r=0 and you get 0, which is probably wrong
 
but like you say if r=0 then integrating cos(nx) is just nonsense. So how would you be able to trust the expression even if it made sense to plug in r=0? Give an example please :)
 
aaaa202 said:
but like you say if r=0 then integrating cos(nx) is just nonsense. So how would you be able to trust the expression even if it made sense to plug in r=0? Give an example please :)

You can't trust it. See https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=3798255&postcount=2 posted above. You just have to do the integral separately
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
3K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
3K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
4K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
3K