Why Does the Integral of 1/(z-2) - 1/(z-1/2) Equal -2*pi*i/3?

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Dassinia
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Hello,
I don't get why using the fact that ∫dz/z = 2*pi*i accros the circle
This integral gives:

1/3∫(1/(z-2)-1/(z-1/2))dz = 1/3(-2*pi*i) across the circle

Thanks !
 
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Dassinia said:
Hello,
I don't get why using the fact that ∫dz/z = 2*pi*i accros the circle
This integral gives:

1/3∫(1/(z-2)-1/(z-1/2))dz = 1/3(-2*pi*i) across the circle

Thanks !

Why do you think 1/z has anything to do with (1/3)*(1/(z-2)-1/(z-1/2))??