Why does the mass attenuation coefficient have a negative gradient?

epsilon
Messages
29
Reaction score
1
I am currently trying to understand the mass attenuation coefficient (MAC) with regards to photoelectric absorption. Consider this graph:

NaKSb_photoelectric_absorption - Copy.png


Why does this have a negative gradient? Why does the MAC decrease as the photon energy increases?

From what I understand, the MAC is the rate of energy loss of a photon as it traverses a medium, independent of the density of the medium and is therefore solely a property of the atomic arrangement, etc. Hence why would a photon be losing energy slower if it is initially higher energy? Also, I believe the jagged parts of the line are the electron excitation energies of atoms, but how does this tie into the negative gradient?

Many thanks in advance!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Everybody knows that x-rays penetrate matter, so you should not be surprised.

As to why, this is due to the matrix element of the electrical dipole operator between atomic wave functions. It goes down fast when the wavelength is smaller than the size of the orbitals.
Yes, the jagged parts are the absorption edges, when the photon energy is at the treshold for ionisation of an inner-shell electron.
 
  • Like
Likes epsilon
I also found that the MAC is easier to understand as the probability of a photoelectric absorption interaction per unit distance traveled into the material, for anyone else who is wondering!
 
  • Like
Likes PietKuip
From the BCS theory of superconductivity is well known that the superfluid density smoothly decreases with increasing temperature. Annihilated superfluid carriers become normal and lose their momenta on lattice atoms. So if we induce a persistent supercurrent in a ring below Tc and after that slowly increase the temperature, we must observe a decrease in the actual supercurrent, because the density of electron pairs and total supercurrent momentum decrease. However, this supercurrent...
Hi. I have got question as in title. How can idea of instantaneous dipole moment for atoms like, for example hydrogen be consistent with idea of orbitals? At my level of knowledge London dispersion forces are derived taking into account Bohr model of atom. But we know today that this model is not correct. If it would be correct I understand that at each time electron is at some point at radius at some angle and there is dipole moment at this time from nucleus to electron at orbit. But how...
Back
Top