MHB Why Does the Matrix Calculation Not Match Expected Results in Linear Mapping?

Mathick
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Hello!

I don't know exactly how to state my question so I'll show you what my problem is.

Ex. Let T : [math]R[x]_3 →R[/math] be the function defined by [math] T(p(x)) = p(−1) + \int_{0}^{1} p(x) \,dx [/math], where [math]R[x]_3[/math] is a vector space of polynomials with degree at most 3. Show that $T$ is a linear map; write down the matrix of $T$ with respect to the standard bases of [math]R[x]_3[/math] and [math]R[/math] (the latter basis is of course given by [math] \left\{(1)\right\}[/math], i.e. the set consisting of the column vector of length 1 with entry 1), and find a basis for the kernel of $T$.

I found this matrix. It's a row vector [math]A=(2 \quad -\frac{1}{2} \quad\quad \frac{4}{3} \quad -\frac{3}{4})[/math]. And then the kernel basis is [math]1+4x,2-3x^2,3+8x^3[/math].

But I don't understand it. I mean if I multiply the matrix [math]A[/math] by a standard vector [math](1 \quad x \quad x^2 \quad x^3) [/math] I won't get, for example, for [math] p(x)=x [/math] the value [math] -\frac{1}{2}[/math].

Please, help me find the point where I misunderstand something. I really want to know what I am doing. I don't want to do maths like a robot without understanding.
 
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Mathick said:
Hello!

I don't know exactly how to state my question so I'll show you what my problem is.

Ex. Let T : [math]R[x]_3 →R[/math] be the function defined by [math] T(p(x)) = p(−1) + \int_{0}^{1} p(x) \,dx [/math], where [math]R[x]_3[/math] is a vector space of polynomials with degree at most 3. Show that $T$ is a linear map; write down the matrix of $T$ with respect to the standard bases of [math]R[x]_3[/math] and [math]R[/math] (the latter basis is of course given by [math] \left\{(1)\right\}[/math], i.e. the set consisting of the column vector of length 1 with entry 1), and find a basis for the kernel of $T$.

I found this matrix. It's a row vector [math]A=(2 \quad -\frac{1}{2} \quad\quad \frac{4}{3} \quad -\frac{3}{4})[/math]. And then the kernel basis is [math]1+4x,2-3x^2,3+8x^3[/math].

But I don't understand it. I mean if I multiply the matrix [math]A[/math] by a standard vector [math](1 \quad x \quad x^2 \quad x^3) [/math] I won't get, for example, for [math] p(x)=x [/math] the value [math] -\frac{1}{2}[/math].

Please, help me find the point where I misunderstand something. I really want to know what I am doing. I don't want to do maths like a robot without understanding.
With respect to the standard basis $\{1,x,x^2,x^3\}$ of $R[x]_3$, the polynomial $p(x) = a + bx + cx^2 + dx^3$ is represented by the vector $V = \begin{bmatrix}a\\b\\c\\d\end{bmatrix},$ so that $$T(p(x)) = AV = \begin{bmatrix}2&-\tfrac12 & \tfrac43 & -\tfrac34\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}a\\b\\c\\d\end{bmatrix}.$$ In particular, if $p(x) = x$ then $V = \begin{bmatrix}0\\1\\0\\0\end{bmatrix}$ and $T(p(x)) = \begin{bmatrix}2&-\tfrac12 & \tfrac43 & -\tfrac34\end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix}0\\1\\0\\0\end{bmatrix} = -\frac12.$
 
Thread 'How to define vector field?'
Hello! In one book I saw that function ##V## of 3 variables ##V_x, V_y, V_z## (vector field in 3D) can be decomposed in a Taylor series without higher-order terms (partial derivative of second power and higher) at point ##(0,0,0)## such way: I think so: higher-order terms can be neglected because partial derivative of second power and higher are equal to 0. Is this true? And how to define vector field correctly for this case? (In the book I found nothing and my attempt was wrong...

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