If i have a shaft & i'm applying a driving torque D at one end & at other end there is resisting torque R due to bearing friction, etc. Then if D>R, i have net torque = moment of inertia times angular acceleration. Since the ang. accln is constant with respect to time, will the ang. speed of shaft keep increasing till infinity? If the answer is yes, then why doesnt this happen to motors & engines @ low or no load? Another doubt is that by conservation of energy we have input power= output power + losses, so if i am giving finite input power, the output power has to be finite. Since rotational kinetic energy of shaft is half * MI * square of angular velocity, angular velocity cannot be infinite as that would make output power infinite, right? Please help this is so confusing(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Why doesnt net torque cause angular velocity to increase upto infinity?

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