Why doesn't this method work? (Re: Simultaneous ODEs)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of Fourier transforms to a set of simultaneous ordinary differential equations (ODEs) involving functions f and g, with constants a and b. The original poster (OP) attempts to derive a solution but encounters discrepancies in the results, leading to questions about the validity of their method.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The OP describes their approach of using Fourier transforms to solve the ODEs and notes the transformation steps taken. Some participants question the accuracy of the transformation and the handling of common factors in the equations.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants actively questioning the OP's methodology and pointing out potential issues in the transformation process. There is no explicit consensus on the error, but the dialogue suggests a productive examination of the mathematical steps involved.

Contextual Notes

The OP mentions boundary conditions that are part of their solution process, but details on these conditions are not provided. The discussion also hints at potential misunderstandings regarding the treatment of common factors in the equations.

Hoplite
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I have been working on a derivation in which the following simultateous ordinary differential equations have appeared:
[tex]f^{(4)}(x)-2 a^2 f''(x)+a^4 f(x)+b(g''(x)-a^2 g(x))=0,[/tex]
[tex]g^{(4)}(x)-2 a^2 g''(x)+a^4 g(x)-b(f''(x)-a^2 f(x))=0,[/tex]
where [tex]a[/tex] and [tex]b[/tex] are constants. I figured that I could solve this using Fourier transforms. First, I transform the above, using [tex]\nu[/tex] as the transform space analogue of [tex]x[/tex], into the following:
[tex](\nu^2 +a^2 )\hat f(\nu ) -b \hat g(\nu )=0,[/tex]
[tex](\nu^2 +a^2 )\hat g(\nu ) +b \hat f(\nu )=0.[/tex]
I then rearrange these equations via substitution into
[tex][(\nu^2 +a^2 )^2 +b^2 ] \hat f(\nu ) =0,[/tex]
[tex][(\nu^2 +a^2 )^2 +b^2 ] \hat g(\nu )=0.[/tex]
Taking the inverse Fourier transform then results in
[tex]f^{(4)}(x)-2a^2 f''(x)+(a^4 +b^2 )f(x)=0,[/tex]
[tex]g^{(4)}(x)-2a^2 g''(x)+(a^4 +b^2 )g(x)=0.[/tex]

However, after I solve for these two ODEs using the boundary conditions, I find that the resulting answer is erroneous. I can only conclude that the above methodoly doesn't work, although I can't see why.

Could anyone point out the mathematical error in the above steps?
 
Last edited:
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can you show your transform... shouldn't you get factors of [itex]nu^4[/itex]?
 
Last edited:
The OP is dividing out a common factor of [itex]\nu^2+a^2[/itex].
 
vela said:
The OP is dividing out a common factor of [itex]\nu^2+a^2[/itex].
Yes, that's what I've done.
 

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