Why is Green's function method for ODEs only considered for x < z?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the Green's function method for ordinary differential equations (ODEs), specifically addressing the behavior of the Green's function G(x, z) under certain conditions. The original poster presents a problem involving a second-order linear ODE with specific initial conditions and questions why the analysis is limited to the region where x < z.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand the implications of the initial conditions on the Green's function and why the limits of integration change from 0 to x. They express confusion about the nature of the improper integral and the relevance of the boundary conditions.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring the reasoning behind the piecewise definition of the Green's function and its connection to the initial conditions. Some clarification has been provided regarding the limits of integration and the behavior of the Green's function in relation to the specified conditions.

Contextual Notes

The discussion highlights the importance of the initial conditions in determining the behavior of the Green's function, particularly in the context of the specified interval and the nature of the integral involved.

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Homework Statement



I'm teaching myself the Green's function method for ODEs, because it looks relevant to my interests. This is a (slightly contrived) problem I just came up with arbitrarily:

[tex]y''+5y'+6y=sin(x) \; \; \; ; \; \; \; y(0)=y'(0)=0[/tex]

Homework Equations



i) When considered as a function of [itex]x[/itex] alone, [itex]G(x, z)[/itex] must obey the homogeneous initial conditions.

ii) The derivatives of [itex]G(x, z)[/itex] with respect to [itex]x[/itex] up to order [itex]n - 2[/itex] are continuous at [itex]x = z[/itex], but the [itex](n - 1)^{th}[/itex] order derivative has a discontinuity of [itex]\large{\frac{1}{a_{n}(z)}}[/itex] at this point.

The Attempt at a Solution



Proceeding with the complementary solution (following the procedure outlined in my text):

[tex]G(x, z)=\left\{\begin{matrix}<br /> A(z)e^{-2x} + B(z)e^{-3x}\Rightarrow & x<z \\ <br /> C(z)e^{-2x} + D(z)e^{-3x}\Rightarrow & x>z <br /> \end{matrix}\right.[/tex]

We require [itex]G(0, z) = G'(0, z) = 0[/itex]. For some reason this implies [itex]A(z) = B(z) = 0[/itex]. I mean, it's obvious that this is true if [itex]G(x, z) = A(z)e^{-2x} + B(z)e^{-3z}[/itex], but it's a piecewise function, so why do we only consider [itex]x < z[/itex]?

Anyways, this equation is of order 2, so we need the 0th order derivative to be continuous. Also, the 1st derivative needs to have a discontinuity of 1 (because the leading coefficient is 1):

[tex]\begin{matrix}<br /> C(z)e^{-2z}+D(z)e^{-3z}=0\\ -2C(z)e^{-2z}-3D(z)e^{-3z}=1<br /> <br /> \end{matrix}[/tex]

Solving gives [itex]C(z) = e^{2z}, D(z) = -e^{3z}[/itex]. Then:

[tex]y(x) = \int_{0}^{\infty }G(x,z)sin(z)dz[/tex]

[tex]y(x)=\int_{0}^{x }[e^{2z-2x}-e^{3z-3x}]sin(z)dz[/tex]

[tex]y(x)=\frac{1}{10}(e^{-3x} (2e^{x}-1) - cos(x) + sin(x)) \leftarrow \text{Lazily computed with Mathematica.}[/tex]

What I don't get is why that improper integral all of a sudden changed to have limits from 0 to [itex]x[/itex]. Furthermore, why is it even an improper integral at all? I suspect that it's because the initial conditions don't specify a boundary, but then why shouldn't the lower limit be negative infinity?

Thanks so much, and sorry about the wall of Tex :redface:
 
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Screwdriver said:
We require [itex]G(0, z) = G'(0, z) = 0[/itex]. For some reason this implies [itex]A(z) = B(z) = 0[/itex]. I mean, it's obvious that this is true if [itex]G(x, z) = A(z)e^{-2x} + B(z)e^{-3z}[/itex], but it's a piecewise function, so why do we only consider [itex]x < z[/itex]?
The way you solved the problem, you've found the solution on the interval [0, ∞), which makes sense because you have the initial conditions at x=0 and you want to know how the system responds subsequently. Consequently, z will lie somewhere in that interval and split the interval into two pieces. The initial conditions apply to only the x<z part of the Green's function because x=0 is in the x<z part of the interval.
Anyways, this equation is of order 2, so we need the 0th order derivative to be continuous. Also, the 1st derivative needs to have a discontinuity of 1 (because the leading coefficient is 1):

[tex]\begin{matrix}<br /> C(z)e^{-2z}+D(z)e^{-3z}=0\\ -2C(z)e^{-2z}-3D(z)e^{-3z}=1<br /> <br /> \end{matrix}[/tex]

Solving gives [itex]C(z) = e^{2z}, D(z) = -e^{3z}[/itex]. Then:

[tex]y(x) = \int_{0}^{\infty }G(x,z)sin(z)dz[/tex]

[tex]y(x)=\int_{0}^{x }[e^{2z-2x}-e^{3z-3x}]sin(z)dz[/tex]

[tex]y(x)=\frac{1}{10}(e^{-3x} (2e^{x}-1) - cos(x) + sin(x)) \leftarrow \text{Lazily computed with Mathematica.}[/tex]

What I don't get is why that improper integral all of a sudden changed to have limits from 0 to [itex]x[/itex]. Furthermore, why is it even an improper integral at all? I suspect that it's because the initial conditions don't specify a boundary, but then why shouldn't the lower limit be negative infinity?

Thanks so much, and sorry about the wall of Tex :redface:
Remember G(x,z) vanishes for x<z, so only when z is between 0 and x is there any contribution to the integral.
 
Okay totally gotcha, so it really just comes down to the initial conditions. Thanks for clearing that up - I was beginning to lose hope! This method seems like more trouble than it's worth, but I'm sure it will come in handy some day.
 

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