Why is j2 = 1/2 and not -1/2 in the coupled angular momenta equation?

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In the discussion about the coupling of angular momenta, the focus is on why j2 equals 1/2 rather than -1/2 in the equation for J². The equation is transformed to include terms for j1 and j2, with the specific case of |1/2; -1/2> being analyzed. It is clarified that the notation represents spin-1/2 particles, leading to the conclusion that both j1 and j2 are set to 1/2. The quantization of angular momentum is acknowledged as a factor in this determination. Ultimately, the understanding of the notation resolves the initial confusion regarding the values of j1 and j2.
Dreak
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Hello, I have a small question about coupling of angular momenta.

When you have J² with J = J1 + J2; you change it to the form (dropping the hbar in all equations):

j² = j1² + j2² + j1-j2+ + j1+j2- + 2j1zj2z

now it's these j1-j2+ I have a problem with.

Let's say you use it on |1/2;-1/2>. The answer is √[j1(j1+1) - m1(m1-1)] . √[j2(j2+1) - m2(m2 + 1)]

Ok, no problem. But apperently, the answer is: √[1/2(1/2+1) - 1/2(1/2-1)] . √ [ 1/2(1/2 + 1) - (-1/2)(-1/2 + 1)]

So the j2 = 1/2 and not -1/2 and I don't know why...
Unless it is because the angular momenta is quantisised from 0, 1, ...? Could that be it?
and what if you a further j- on the new basecomponent?

edit: nvm, found out :)
 
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Dreak said:
Let's say you use it on |1/2;-1/2>
That notation is a shorthand for ##| m_1; m_2 \rangle##, where it is assumed that these are spin-1/2 particles, ##j_1 = j_2 = 1/2##.
 

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