Ken G
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That's unresponsive to my challenge. I am well aware that we can conceive of superpositions, obviously we do that in quantum mechanics, my question is-- can you test your ideas without at any time confronting them with an apparatus you are relying on to behave classically? This is what you have not shown, and is all I have claimed that you cannot show. Remember, I am not attributing any mystical signifance of a "collapse", I would describe it in exactly the terms you use, and indeed have described it in those terms. My point is, we did it on purpose because that's how we do science, and that is all the CI says (as I've mentioned, Heisenberg tacked some baggage onto the idea of a "collapse", I've never adopted that, I'm using the version Bohr settled on where the goal is to predict a confrontation with a classical apparatus).Hurkyl said:Yes, we do -- we can, for example, invoke decoherence to suggest, with high probability, the <measuring device, experiment> system transitions into a purely mixed state. Invoke past experience that it does so in a consistent manner. Use conditional probabilities, rather than collapses.
No it isn't, it is consistent with unitary evolution subject to averaging over untracked information. That's a very big difference, as it is the source of the nonunitariness that the MWI is so bothered about and the CI isn't. Of course the equations of quantum mechanics work where they work, and in many other situations they require we do some noise averaging that ruins the unitariness of the behavior of the open subspace under investigation. When all you see is the shadow of that projection, to imagine what made that shadow is to engage in pedagogy, which is fine, if we know it for what it is.If we do this, the observed behavior of measuring devices is, as far as we know, consistent with unitary evolution.
No, I am making no assumptions at all about reality, that's the point. I am talking about what science is doing, not reality. Science is how we address reality, and we introduce the classical models of our own instruments to do it. Our choice, our reasoning process, our concept of measurement-- that's where all the nonunitariness comes from, and it is a "problem" that needs no solving. There's simply no need for the MWI because its projection onto science is the CI. You may invoke it as a pedagogical tool at your whim, but until you make a prediction using it, you have nothing more. The real problem is asking people to believe it is the reality-- that is downright ascientific.Yes -- at least, I thought that you were arguing certain parts of reality assumed a priori to be classical, and that science cannot be used to question that assumption.
One more time: I do not understand any parts of reality as classical, I, and all scientists (I still await the counterexample), must treat their tools for probing reality as classical. If that wasn't successful, we'd all be out of work, but it has nothing to do with believing how reality works.Now, it looks like it might be that you understand certain parts of reality as classical simply because you have not yet formulated any other understanding -- and you are asserting that everybody in the world currently suffers this limitation, and that it is insurmountable.
I have no doubt that our measuring instruments are only approximately classical, and I have never claimed otherwise. My claim is that we treat them as classical, in the very core of how we do science. You see, "classical" and "quantum mechanical" are not words that describe reality (we haven't the vaguest idea how to make words that do that), they are words that describe our understanding of reality, how we treat reality. And part and parcel of that is how we treat our interfaces with reality. This is simply true-- science is a story of what is happening in our heads, inspired by our interactions with nature.Our interface with reality is real, isn't it? Shouldn't it follow that the interface is also nonclassical?
"Reality itself" is neither "consistent with the quantum viewpoint" nor "inconsistent with the quantum viewpoint", it's just reality. We define what the "quantum viewpoint" is, and some parts of it involve unitary time evolution, and other parts of it do not (the confrontation with the classical apparatus that is always present). How can I say this, you keep mishearing me. I am saying that we construct knowledge according to classical models, like numbers, readings, intensities, lengths, and times. These are the "observables" and "parameters" of quantum mechanics. Why is the theory of quantum mechanics expressed in terms of classical observables? Why do we need a concept of "collapse" of a wavefunction onto a basis vector?You only did half of the exercise. You apply your classical viewpoint in a domain where it is known to be consistent with reality -- but you have not also shown that reality is inconsistent with a quantum viewpoint!
It is we who require that, not nature. It's in science. There is no aspect of reality that has to behave classically-- but all of quantum mechanics must be projected onto classical observables for us to test our understanding. That is where the "collapse" comes from, we did it on purpose, we looked for ways to do it and called them measurements. It's not odd that measurements involve collapses, that is the purpose of measurements.
Right, and indeed all science works exactly like that. By the way, the Earth is not "round" either!For comparison, I will point out that architects often assume the Earth is flat when they design buildings, and when the building is built, it works out exactly as the architect foresaw. Is this exercise a demonstration that the Earth really is flat? No -- because the building is small, the results are also consistent with the round Earth hypothesis, and so this exercise is of no use in distinguishing the two.
No, that's not the point of the exercise, the point of the exercise if for you to tell me why you think it is that we explore quantum physics using entirely instruments that show no difference classically and quantum mechanically. Why is that? Why, if we want to understand quantum systems, don't we probe them with other quantum systems at every step of the way? From whence comes the need for that inevitable "last step", the "translation into the classical realm"?The exercises you propose are the same -- they are situations where classical and quantum physics are not known to be observably different, and so they shed no light on the issue!
I'm curious why you think that is, because you have given no counterexamples. And if we are planning on doing that translation, why should we be surprised when it breaks the unitariness? Quantum mechanics itself tells us that will break the unitariness, this is not a problem that needs solving. We don't need the MWI.
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