Why Is the Antiderivative of Cos(x) Different from Its Integral?

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SUMMARY

The antiderivative of cos(x) is sin(x), not -sin(x), which is a common misconception. The integral of cos(x) yields sin(x) plus a constant of integration. This distinction is crucial for understanding calculus concepts, particularly when differentiating between derivatives and antiderivatives. The confusion often arises from mixing up these fundamental definitions, especially when struggling with integration techniques such as integration by parts.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of basic calculus concepts, including derivatives and integrals.
  • Familiarity with trigonometric functions, specifically cos(x) and sin(x).
  • Knowledge of integration techniques, including integration by parts.
  • Ability to interpret mathematical notation and terminology accurately.
NEXT STEPS
  • Review the Fundamental Theorem of Calculus to clarify the relationship between derivatives and integrals.
  • Practice integration techniques, focusing on integration by parts and its applications.
  • Explore the properties of trigonometric integrals, particularly those involving sin(x) and cos(x).
  • Study common misconceptions in calculus to strengthen foundational understanding.
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Students in calculus courses, educators teaching calculus concepts, and anyone seeking to clarify the differences between derivatives and antiderivatives in trigonometric functions.

A.J.710
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I am just stuck on the fact that the antiderivative of cos(x) is -sin(x) but the integral of cos(x) is a positive vale of sin(x). Can someone please explain this to me. I am two weeks behind on my calculus course now because I got stuck on integration by parts and don't understand anything after that and I am reading over my teacher's answer key and see this in one of the solutions and don't understand why. Thanks
 
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A.J.710 said:
I am just stuck on the fact that the antiderivative of cos(x) is -sin(x)

No. That is the derivative on cos(x), not its antiderivative.

but the integral of cos(x) is a positive vale of sin(x). Can someone please explain this to me. I am two weeks behind on my calculus course now because I got stuck on integration by parts and don't understand anything after that and I am reading over my teacher's answer key and see this in one of the solutions and don't understand why. Thanks
 
OMG no wonder. I can't believe I have been tripping over something that simple. I'm just so overwhelmed right now I am making stupid mistakes. Thank you for pointing that out.

LCKurtz said:
No. That is the derivative on cos(x), not its antiderivative.
 

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