I understand why a definite integral of the form [itex]^{b}_{a}[/itex]∫ƒ(x)dx has the differential dx in it. What I don't understand, and what my teacher hasn't explained is why an indefinite integral (i.e. an antiderivative) requires the differential. Why does ∫ƒ(x)dx require that dx to mean "anti-differentiate"? To put it another way, why is the notation for the antiderivative an integral? It's obviously more than a question of notation, however, as without the differential techniques like u-substitution don't work. I hope this question makes sense, but this is something that has been bothering me for a while now. I figured my teacher would get to it eventually, but he hasn't yet.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**

The friendliest, high quality science and math community on the planet! Everyone who loves science is here!

# Why is there a differential in an indefinite integral?

Loading...

Similar Threads - differential indefinite integral | Date |
---|---|

B Product rule OR Partial differentiation | Jan 10, 2018 |

A Differential operator, inverse thereof | Jan 9, 2018 |

I Differentiation of sin function where's my mistake? | Dec 21, 2017 |

I Differentials of order 2 or bigger that are equal to 0 | Dec 6, 2017 |

Interpretation of dx as the differential of x for Indefinite Integrals | Mar 13, 2012 |

**Physics Forums - The Fusion of Science and Community**