Why only odd cosine terms in this Fourier series?

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The discussion revolves around a problem from MIT's 18.03 "Differential Equations" course, focusing on why only odd cosine terms appear in a Fourier series for a function that is π-anti-periodic. Participants note that while they successfully calculated the Fourier coefficients using both a UI applet and direct computation, the even cosine terms do not contribute to the approximation of the function. The underlying reason is linked to the nature of the integrals involved, which eliminate these even terms. The thread seeks an intuitive understanding of this phenomenon, highlighting that the problem set’s solutions do not address this specific inquiry. Overall, the absence of even cosine terms is attributed to the function's anti-periodic properties.
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Homework Statement
Consider the function with period ##2\pi## given by

$$f(t)=\begin{cases} \frac{\pi}{4},\ \ \ \ \ t\in [-\pi/2,\pi/2] \\ -\frac{\pi}{4},\ \ \ \ \ t\in [\pi/2,3\pi/2] \\ 0, \ \ \ \ \ t=\pm\frac{\pi}{2}\end{cases}$$

Compute the Fourier coefficients for this function.
Relevant Equations
Since the function is even, there are only cosine terms in the Fourier series.

My question is what is an explanation for the fact that the Fourier series only has odd cosine terms.
This is part of a problem in a problem set in MIT OCW's 18.03 "Differential Equations" course.

This problem uses a nice online applet made for playing with Fourier coefficients.

I was able to solve everything which mainly involved finding the coefficients both by tinkering with the UI and visually arriving at them and also by computing them directly.

As we play with the UI, we quickly see that the even terms aren't useful in approximating the function with Fourier terms.

We are asked why this might be.

I am not sure why.

Below are my calculations and answers to the problems, for the record.

Part (a) are the coefficients I found by playing with the applet.

Part (b) is the calculation of the coefficients.

So of course, from the math we see that the even cosine terms disappear because of the integrals involved. But is there some kind of intuitive reason?

Note that the problem set has solutions, but they don't answer the question that I am asking here.

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The even cosine terms are all ##\pi##-periodic whereas your function is ##\pi##-anti-periodic (##f(t+\pi) = -f(t)##).
 
First, I tried to show that ##f_n## converges uniformly on ##[0,2\pi]##, which is true since ##f_n \rightarrow 0## for ##n \rightarrow \infty## and ##\sigma_n=\mathrm{sup}\left| \frac{\sin\left(\frac{n^2}{n+\frac 15}x\right)}{n^{x^2-3x+3}} \right| \leq \frac{1}{|n^{x^2-3x+3}|} \leq \frac{1}{n^{\frac 34}}\rightarrow 0##. I can't use neither Leibnitz's test nor Abel's test. For Dirichlet's test I would need to show, that ##\sin\left(\frac{n^2}{n+\frac 15}x \right)## has partialy bounded sums...