pellman Messages 683 Reaction score 6 Thread starter Jul 31, 2009 #1 Why should the action be Lorentz invariant? Every time I come across this it is assumed by the author without qualification. As too obvious to explain maybe? Ain't obvious to me.
Why should the action be Lorentz invariant? Every time I come across this it is assumed by the author without qualification. As too obvious to explain maybe? Ain't obvious to me.
AstroRoyale Messages 110 Reaction score 0 Jul 31, 2009 #2 https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=193613 See also Greiner Chapter 2 of Field Quantization
https://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=193613 See also Greiner Chapter 2 of Field Quantization