Work problem, physics solution

AI Thread Summary
A nursery in California faces challenges planting heavy trees in 36" boxes weighing up to 1700 lbs, especially when customers have retainer walls and refuse crane services. The planting crew currently hand lifts these boxes, which is time-consuming and labor-intensive. A pulley system is proposed as a potential solution to streamline the process and reduce costs. Suggestions include considering Griphoist or Tirfor winches, though finding a suitable ground anchor remains a concern. Evaluating the cost-effectiveness of renting a crane versus providing free manpower is also recommended.
zheiland
Messages
1
Reaction score
0
I work at a nursery in California where we go out and plant the trees that we sell. Some of these trees are in 36" boxes and weigh up to 1700 lbs. Many times customers have 3-5 feet retainer walls and don't want to pay for a crane, and the planting crew is forced to hand lift these boxes inch by inch along a make shift ramp. I figured it would save a lot of time and money if we just built our own pulley system. Any suggestions on schematics or possible solutions to the problem?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
So at the moment you give your customers the extra manpower and time required to build ramps free of charge. Have you worked out if it's cheaper for you to buy a crane and give them a free crane rental instead of free manpower?

Perhaps look at a Griphoist or Tirfor winches? The problem might be finding a suitable ground anchor to fix the other end to.
 
Hi there, im studying nanoscience at the university in Basel. Today I looked at the topic of intertial and non-inertial reference frames and the existence of fictitious forces. I understand that you call forces real in physics if they appear in interplay. Meaning that a force is real when there is the "actio" partner to the "reactio" partner. If this condition is not satisfied the force is not real. I also understand that if you specifically look at non-inertial reference frames you can...
I have recently been really interested in the derivation of Hamiltons Principle. On my research I found that with the term ##m \cdot \frac{d}{dt} (\frac{dr}{dt} \cdot \delta r) = 0## (1) one may derivate ##\delta \int (T - V) dt = 0## (2). The derivation itself I understood quiet good, but what I don't understand is where the equation (1) came from, because in my research it was just given and not derived from anywhere. Does anybody know where (1) comes from or why from it the...
Back
Top