X > 0, but why doesn't 1/x > 0?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the mathematical properties of inequalities and the behavior of the function 1/x as x approaches zero. Participants explore the implications of dividing by zero and the intuitive understanding of inequalities involving positive numbers.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant asserts that if x > 0, then intuitively 1/x should also be greater than 0, despite the undefined nature of 1/0.
  • Another participant emphasizes that 1/0 is undefined and suggests considering the limit as x approaches 0 from the positive side.
  • Several participants note that as x approaches 0 from the right, 1/x becomes arbitrarily large, which they argue is still greater than 0.
  • Concerns are raised about the validity of a rule stating that if a > 0, then 1/a > 0, with references to external study guides that may be inaccurate.
  • Some participants discuss the algebraic manipulation of inequalities and the confusion arising from applying equality rules to inequalities.
  • There is a suggestion that dividing both sides of an inequality by a variable that could be zero leads to incorrect conclusions.
  • One participant highlights the distinction between approaching a value and being equal to it, indicating a misunderstanding in the application of limits and inequalities.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the implications of dividing by zero and the validity of certain algebraic manipulations. There is no consensus on the resolution of these issues, and the discussion remains unresolved.

Contextual Notes

Limitations include the potential misunderstanding of algebraic rules when applied to inequalities, particularly in the context of limits and undefined values.

FredericChopin
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If a > b, where a > 0 and b > 0, then 1/a < 1/b.

But what if b = 0? For example, if x > 0, meaning if x is a positive number, then it should be that 1/x > 0.

Yes, yes, I know I would be dividing by 0, but it doesn't make sense intuitively. If x is a positive number, then obviously 1/x is a positive number. So it should be that 1/x > 0.

Can somebody explain what is going on here?

Thank you.
 
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You have the answer yourself, 1/0 is "undefined" for a reason.

but it doesn't make sense intuitively
... well 1/0 makes no sense at all. If you intuitively expect it to then your intuition is wrong.

To make sense of things, you have to ask, instead, what happens to 1/x when x approaches zero trough positive reals... i.e. for that case that b is arbitrarily small.
Try that.
 
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If x approaches 0 from the right, then 1/x will become arbitrarily (positively) large, which is definitely still greater than 0. Hm... I still don't see what could be wrong.

Before I posted, I Googled "inequality properties" and I found a popular school study guide called "Sparknotes", which has a reputation for being inaccurate. However, on their page on inequalities:

http://www.sparknotes.com/math/algebra1/inequalities/section2.rhtml

, they mention that if a > 0, then 1/a > 0 (see the attached screenshot from the page). Is this wrong too? Well, it wouldn't be a surprise if it was.

Thank you.
 

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FredericChopin said:
If x approaches 0 from the right, then 1/x will become arbitrarily (positively) large, which is definitely still greater than 0. Hm... I still don't see what could be wrong.

Before I posted, I Googled "inequality properties" and I found a popular school study guide called "Sparknotes", which has a reputation for being inaccurate. However, on their page on inequalities:

http://www.sparknotes.com/math/algebra1/inequalities/section2.rhtml

, they mention that if a > 0, then 1/a > 0 (see the attached screenshot from the page). Is this wrong too? Well, it wouldn't be a surprise if it was.

Thank you.

Well, run a test. If a = 2, then is a > 0? What about 1/2? Is 1/2 > 0? These are trivial cases which show that if a > 0, then 1/a > 0.
 
Approaching a value and equality to a value are different things.
 
if x approaches 0 from the right, then 1/x will become arbitrarily (positively) large, which is definitely still greater than 0. Hm... I still don't see what could be wrong.
There's nothing wrong with that statement.

[sparknotes] mention that if a > 0, then 1/a > 0 (see the attached screenshot from the page). Is this wrong too?
No. That is correct.
I don't see how you would have thought that may be wrong and it is simple to check as SteamKing suggests.

The rule you started with, 1/a < 1/b : a>b>0, simply does not apply for b=0, just like it does not apply for a=b or or a<b.
Further, "1/a > 0" only holds for a>0 and "1/a" is undefined for a=0.

So what is the problem?
 
Simon Bridge said:
There's nothing wrong with that statement.

No. That is correct.
I don't see how you would have thought that may be wrong and it is simple to check as SteamKing suggests.

The rule you started with, 1/a < 1/b : a>b>0, simply does not apply for b=0, just like it does not apply for a=b or or a<b.
Further, "1/a > 0" only holds for a>0 and "1/a" is undefined for a=0.

So what is the problem?

Oh, well, there is nothing wrong, then. I thought that rule was wrong because if x > 0, then dividing 1 by both sides of the inequality yields 1/x > 1/0. My concern was that 1/0 is not defined. There is clearly something wrong with the algebra, but what is wrong?

Thank you.
 
I thought that rule was wrong because if x > 0, then dividing 1 by both sides of the inequality yields 1/x > 1/0 ... There is clearly something wrong with the algebra, but what is wrong?
If I follow you, you are asking if: $$\frac{1}{a>b} = \frac{1}{a} > \frac{1}{b}$$ is proper algebra?
 
Simon Bridge said:
If I follow you, you are asking if: $$\frac{1}{a>b} = \frac{1}{a} > \frac{1}{b}$$ is proper algebra?

Rather, something like this:

If a ≠ 0 and b ≠ 0, then if a = b, then 1/a = 1/b.

Well, I'm probably not using the inequality sign correctly and trying to use equality rules for the "greater than" sign. But basically, if x > 0, then a "=" x, and b "=" 0, and using the algebra "rule" above, if x > 0, then 1/x > 1/0, which is incorrect.
 
  • #10
Certainly a sequence of statements that is true for an equality need not be true for an inequality.

However, I am having trouble figuring out what you are talking about.
if x > 0, then dividing 1 by both sides of the inequality yields 1/x > 1/0
... this would be a description of some algebra - but a vague description.
"Divide 1 by both sides of the inequality" does not make mathematical sense, so I suspect this is where you have erred.
Can you show a series of algebraic steps that start with x>0 and end with 1/x > 1/0 ?
After all: if the former is true then the latter is false.

i.e. what is it that is wrong?
 
  • #11
##a>b##, then multiply both sides by ##1/ab## (with ##a,b>0##) and obtain ##1/b>1/a##

##x>0##, then mutliply both sides by ##1/x^2## and obtain ##1/x>0##
 
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  • #12
@FredericChopin: soarce's post is the kind of thing I was trying to get you to do.
Does that help?
 
  • #13
Why the continued confusion? Approaching and Equaling are not the same.
 

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