- #1
redyelloworange
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Suppose
f(a) = g(a) = h(a)
and f(x) <= g(x) <= (x) for all x
Prove g(x) is differentible and that
f'(a) = g'(a) = h'(a).
So.. I need to prove that the following limit exists:
lim h -->0 (g(x+h) - g(x)) / h
but how can i use the fact that f(x) <= g(x) <= (x) for all x?
Thanks
f(a) = g(a) = h(a)
and f(x) <= g(x) <= (x) for all x
Prove g(x) is differentible and that
f'(a) = g'(a) = h'(a).
So.. I need to prove that the following limit exists:
lim h -->0 (g(x+h) - g(x)) / h
but how can i use the fact that f(x) <= g(x) <= (x) for all x?
Thanks