- #1
ehrenfest
- 2,020
- 1
I have seen two formulations of the dirac delta function with the Fourier transform. The one on wikipedia is
[tex] \int_{-\infty}^\infty 1 \cdot e^{-i 2\pi f t}\,dt = \delta(f) [/tex]
and the one in my textbook (Robinett) is
[tex] 1/2\pi \int_{-\infty}^\infty 1 \cdot e^{-i f t}\,dt = \delta(f) [/tex]
I do not understand how they are equivalent? How can you just take the 2pi out of the integral?
[tex] \int_{-\infty}^\infty 1 \cdot e^{-i 2\pi f t}\,dt = \delta(f) [/tex]
and the one in my textbook (Robinett) is
[tex] 1/2\pi \int_{-\infty}^\infty 1 \cdot e^{-i f t}\,dt = \delta(f) [/tex]
I do not understand how they are equivalent? How can you just take the 2pi out of the integral?