- #1
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I'm a little stuck in my proof here. As I was trying to prove that the limit of a binomial distribution is the poisson distribution, I encountered this:
[tex]
\lim_{n\to +\infty} \frac{n!}{(n-x)! (n-k)^x}
[/tex]
where x and k are arbitrary constants.
The books say that this approaches 1, but shows no formal proof. How are we sure that this approaches 1 as n gets larger? In short, what's the formal proof?
Thanx for any help
[tex]
\lim_{n\to +\infty} \frac{n!}{(n-x)! (n-k)^x}
[/tex]
where x and k are arbitrary constants.
The books say that this approaches 1, but shows no formal proof. How are we sure that this approaches 1 as n gets larger? In short, what's the formal proof?
Thanx for any help